37 cards · Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · answer each one, then read the explanation. Your score tallies below. Looking for QSBS's new OBBBA exclusion tiers, worked example? Read the explainer.
0 / 37 answered · 0 correct
Link copied — send it to a friend!
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 001/037easy
A domestic C corporation is calculating its federal income tax liability for its 2025 tax year. Under IRC Section 11 as amended by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act, what rate applies to its taxable income?
AA graduated rate structure with brackets ranging from 15% to 39% depending on the corporation's income level
BA flat 21% rate applied to all of the corporation's taxable income, regardless of how much or how little it earns
CA flat 15% rate applied only to the corporation's first $50,000 of taxable income, with higher marginal rates above that threshold
DA flat 35% rate applied to all taxable income, matching the top corporate rate that applied before 2018
Correct answer: .
The Tax Cuts and Jobs Act repealed the old graduated corporate rate schedule for tax years beginning after December 31, 2017, replacing it with a single flat 21% rate under IRC Section 11(b) that applies to all of a C corporation's taxable income from the first dollar, with no brackets and no distinction based on income level; this remains the applicable rate for the 2025 tax year. The option describing a graduated structure from 15% to 39% accurately reflects the pre-2018 law, including its old bubble-rate mechanism, but that structure no longer exists. The option describing a flat 15% rate on only the first $50,000 wrongly imports the bottom bracket of the old graduated system into a single-bracket framing, when the current law has no brackets at all. The option describing a flat 35% rate matches the top rate under the old law before the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act took effect, not the rate in force for 2025.
Source: IRC Section 11(b), as amended by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017 (Pub. L. 115-97)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 002/037easy
A domestic corporation wants to elect S corporation status effective for its 2025 tax year by filing Form 2553. Under IRC Section 1361(b), which of the following would DISQUALIFY it from being an eligible small business corporation?
AThe corporation has 85 shareholders, all of whom are U.S.-resident individuals
BThe corporation's single class of stock gives every shareholder identical distribution and liquidation rights, even though some shares carry voting rights and others do not
COne of the corporation's shareholders is a qualified subchapter S trust that has made a valid election to be treated as an eligible shareholder
DOne of the corporation's shareholders is a domestic partnership holding its shares on behalf of several individual partners
Correct answer: .
IRC Section 1361(b)(1)(B) limits eligible S corporation shareholders to individuals, estates, and certain qualifying trusts; partnerships and corporations are not eligible shareholders even when they hold shares merely as a pass-through vehicle for otherwise-eligible individuals, so a domestic partnership appearing on the shareholder list disqualifies the corporation from S status. The option describing 85 individual shareholders does not disqualify the corporation, since Section 1361(b)(1)(A) caps eligible shareholders at 100 and 85 is comfortably under that limit. The option describing identical distribution and liquidation rights despite differing voting rights does not disqualify the corporation either, because Treasury regulations under Section 1361 treat differences in voting rights alone as not creating a second class of stock, so the one-class-of-stock requirement is still satisfied. The option describing a qualified subchapter S trust that made a valid election also does not disqualify the corporation, since such a trust is expressly treated as an eligible shareholder once the election is properly made.
Source: IRC Section 1361(b) and (c); Treas. Reg. Section 1.1361-1(l) (one class of stock)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 003/037easy
An individual, filing as single for the 2025 tax year, sells Section 1244 stock at a loss. Under IRC Section 1244, what is the maximum amount of that loss the individual may treat as an ordinary loss (rather than a capital loss) for the year?
A$50,000
B$100,000, the same limit that applies to a married couple filing a joint return
C$250,000, matching the small business corporation's own capitalization ceiling under the same section
DThere is no dollar cap; the entire loss is ordinary as long as the issuing corporation met the small business corporation requirements when the stock was issued
Correct answer: .
IRC Section 1244(b) caps the amount of loss on qualifying small business stock that an individual may treat as an ordinary loss in a single year at $50,000, or $100,000 for spouses filing a joint return; any loss beyond that annual cap is treated as an ordinary capital loss subject to the usual capital loss limitations, regardless of how large the total loss is. The option stating $100,000 gives the joint-return figure, which does not apply to a single filer in this fact pattern. The option stating $250,000 confuses the annual ordinary-loss cap with a different number entirely: Section 1244(c)(3) separately requires that the corporation not have received more than $1,000,000 in aggregate money and property for its stock to qualify as a small business corporation in the first place, a test about the issuer's capitalization rather than about the amount of loss an investor may deduct. The option claiming there is no dollar cap ignores that the $50,000/$100,000 ceiling is a defining, mandatory feature of Section 1244 regardless of whether the issuing corporation met the small business corporation requirements.
Source: IRC Section 1244(b) and (c)(3)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 004/037medium
Corporation X, a domestic C corporation, owns 10% of the stock (by vote and value) of Corporation Y, another domestic corporation, and the two corporations are not members of the same affiliated group. During its 2025 tax year, Corporation X receives a $100,000 dividend from Corporation Y. Under IRC Section 243, what percentage of that dividend may Corporation X deduct as a dividends-received deduction, before considering any taxable-income limitation?
A100%, because all dividends paid between domestic corporations are fully deductible before any income limitation applies
B65%, the rate that applies once a corporate shareholder's ownership reaches the 20%-owned-corporation threshold
C50%, the general rate that applies because Corporation X's 10% stake falls below the 20%-owned-corporation threshold
D0%, because the dividends-received deduction is only available to insurance companies and other specially regulated corporate taxpayers
Correct answer: .
IRC Section 243(a)(1) sets the general dividends-received deduction rate at 50% for dividends from a domestic corporation in which the recipient owns less than 20% of the stock; the rate rises to 65% under Section 243(c) once the recipient's ownership reaches the 20%-owned-corporation threshold, and to 100% under Section 243(a)(3) only for qualifying dividends between members of the same affiliated group. Because Corporation X owns just 10% of Corporation Y and the two are not affiliated, the general 50% rate applies. The option stating 100% wrongly assumes every domestic-to-domestic dividend qualifies for full deduction, when the 100% rate is reserved for the affiliated-group case that does not exist here. The option stating 65% applies the 20%-owned-corporation rate to a shareholder that owns only half of that 20% threshold. The option stating 0% is wrong because the dividends-received deduction is a general mechanism available to ordinary C corporation shareholders receiving domestic dividends, not a special benefit limited to insurers.
Source: IRC Section 243(a) and (c)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 005/037medium
A closely held C corporation retains earnings during its 2025 tax year well beyond the reasonable needs of its business, and the IRS determines this was done to help its shareholders avoid the individual-level tax on dividends. Under IRC Section 531, what is imposed on the corporation's accumulated taxable income, and how does it relate to the corporation's regular income tax under Section 11?
AA separate 20% tax on accumulated taxable income, imposed in addition to the corporation's regular Section 11 income tax
BA 20% tax that replaces the corporation's regular Section 11 income tax for that year, since the accumulated-earnings determination substitutes for ordinary corporate taxation
CA graduated tax ranging from 10% to 37%, mirroring the individual dividend tax rates the shareholders would otherwise have paid
DA 15% tax, matching the flat rate used for the separate corporate alternative minimum tax on adjusted financial statement income
Correct answer: .
IRC Section 531 imposes the accumulated earnings tax at a flat 20% rate on a corporation's accumulated taxable income, as defined in Section 535, when the corporation is formed or availed of to shelter shareholders from individual-level tax on dividends by unreasonably accumulating earnings; this tax is additional to, not a substitute for, the corporation's regular Section 11 income tax liability, functioning as a penalty tax layered on top of ordinary corporate taxation. The option describing the 20% tax as replacing the regular corporate tax gets the relationship backwards; the corporation still owes its full Section 11 tax in addition to the accumulated earnings tax. The option describing a graduated 10%-to-37% rate invents an individual-style bracket structure that has no basis in Section 531, which imposes a single flat rate. The option describing a 15% rate confuses the accumulated earnings tax with the separate and unrelated corporate alternative minimum tax on adjusted financial statement income, which has its own distinct base, rate, and large-corporation applicability trigger.
Source: IRC Section 531 and Section 535
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 006/037easy
A calendar-year C corporation generates a net operating loss in its 2025 tax year and has no net operating losses carried over from any earlier year. Under IRC Section 172 as amended by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act, how may the corporation use this 2025 loss?
ACarry it back two years to offset taxable income reported in 2023 and 2024, then carry any remainder forward
BCarry it forward indefinitely, but the deduction in any future year is limited to 80% of that year's taxable income computed before the net operating loss deduction
CCarry it forward for a maximum of 20 years, fully offsetting up to 100% of taxable income in each carryforward year
DUse the loss to offset income in the current 2025 tax year only; any unused amount is forfeited and cannot be carried to another year
Correct answer: .
For net operating losses arising in tax years beginning after December 31, 2017, the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act amended IRC Section 172 to eliminate the general two-year carryback (aside from narrow farming and certain insurance-company exceptions), allow the loss to be carried forward indefinitely, and cap the deduction in any carryforward year at 80% of that year's taxable income computed without regard to the net operating loss deduction itself. The option describing a two-year carryback to 2023 and 2024 describes the pre-2018 rule that Section 172 no longer applies to a 2025 loss outside the narrow statutory exceptions. The option allowing a full 100%-of-income offset correctly notes that the carryforward period is unlimited in duration but wrongly ignores the 80% cap that applies to post-2017 losses. The option limiting use of the loss to the current year alone ignores that indefinite carryforward is exactly what current law permits; the loss is not forfeited simply because it is not fully used in its origin year.
Source: IRC Section 172, as amended by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017 (Pub. L. 115-97)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 007/037hard
An individual taxpayer holds a limited partnership interest in a real estate venture in which they do not materially participate. Their outside basis, their amount at risk under IRC Section 465, and the passive activity loss rules under IRC Section 469 would each separately restrict how much of a large current-year loss allocated to them is currently deductible. In what order must these three limitations be applied?
APassive activity limitation first, then at-risk limitation, then basis limitation, since the passive-loss rules were enacted most recently and take precedence
BAt-risk limitation first, then passive activity limitation, then basis limitation, because economic risk is the most fundamental constraint on any deduction
CAll three limitations are applied simultaneously to the same loss amount, and the taxpayer may deduct whichever result is most favorable
DBasis limitation first, then the at-risk limitation under IRC Section 465, then the passive activity limitation under IRC Section 469; a loss disallowed at an earlier stage never reaches the later test
Correct answer: .
The established ordering rule requires that a partner's or shareholder's basis limitation be applied first, since a loss cannot be deducted beyond available basis in the first place; the at-risk rules under IRC Section 465 are then applied to whatever loss survives the basis limitation, disallowing any amount exceeding the taxpayer's economic exposure to the activity; and finally the passive activity loss rules under IRC Section 469 are applied only to the portion of the loss that has cleared both the basis and at-risk hurdles. A loss stopped at an earlier stage is suspended there and never reaches a later test. The option placing the passive activity limitation first inverts this sequence and supplies a rationale, that more recently enacted rules take precedence, that plays no role in how these provisions actually interact. The option placing the at-risk limitation first correctly emphasizes economic exposure but wrongly places it ahead of the basis test, which must be satisfied before at-risk rules are even relevant. The option treating all three tests as simultaneous, taxpayer-elected alternatives misdescribes a strictly sequential and mandatory framework as if it offered a choice.
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 008/037easy
A corporation acquires and places in service qualified new equipment on March 1, 2025. Under IRC Section 168(k) as amended by the One Big Beautiful Bill Act, enacted July 4, 2025, what percentage of the equipment's cost may the corporation claim as first-year bonus depreciation?
A40%, continuing the phase-down schedule that had been scheduled to apply to property placed in service during 2025 before the One Big Beautiful Bill Act was enacted
B60%, the rate that applied to property placed in service during 2024 under the pre-existing phase-down schedule
C100%, because the One Big Beautiful Bill Act permanently restored full expensing for qualified property acquired after January 19, 2025, repealing the prior phase-down for such property
D80%, the rate that applied to property placed in service during 2023 under the pre-existing phase-down schedule
Correct answer: .
The One Big Beautiful Bill Act amended IRC Section 168(k) to permanently reinstate 100% bonus depreciation, with no future scheduled phase-down, for qualified property acquired after January 19, 2025; equipment acquired and placed in service in March 2025 satisfies that acquisition-date test and therefore qualifies for full first-year expensing of its cost. The option stating 40% reflects the rate that the original Tax Cuts and Jobs Act phase-down schedule had scheduled for property placed in service during 2025, stepping down twenty percentage points per year from 100% in 2022, a schedule the new law repealed for property acquired after its January 19, 2025 cutoff. The options stating 60% and 80% each state rates from that same repealed phase-down schedule, but for earlier placed-in-service years, 2024 and 2023 respectively, neither of which governs equipment acquired after the new law's effective date.
Source: IRC Section 168(k), as amended by the One Big Beautiful Bill Act, Pub. L. 119-21 (2025)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 009/037medium
For qualifying property a corporation places in service during its 2025 tax year, the One Big Beautiful Bill Act increased the maximum IRC Section 179 expensing election and its corresponding investment-based phase-out threshold. What are the new figures, and at what total qualifying-property investment level is the deduction completely phased out?
AA $1,000,000 maximum deduction with a $2,500,000 phase-out threshold, unchanged from the limits that had applied since the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act
BA $2,500,000 maximum deduction, phasing out dollar-for-dollar once qualifying property placed in service exceeds a $4,000,000 threshold, and fully phased out at $6,500,000 of such property
CA $500,000 maximum deduction with a $2,000,000 phase-out threshold, reflecting the original limits set when Section 179 expensing was first indexed for inflation
DAn unlimited deduction with no phase-out threshold at all, since the One Big Beautiful Bill Act eliminated the Section 179 dollar caps in favor of the new 100% bonus depreciation regime
Correct answer: .
The One Big Beautiful Bill Act raised the maximum IRC Section 179 expensing election to $2,500,000 and raised the investment-based phase-out threshold to $4,000,000, both effective for property placed in service in tax years beginning after December 31, 2024; the deduction is reduced dollar-for-dollar once qualifying property placed in service for the year exceeds the $4,000,000 threshold, reaching a full phase-out once such property reaches $6,500,000. The option describing a $1,000,000 deduction and $2,500,000 threshold states the prior, pre-existing Tax Cuts and Jobs Act era limits that the new law superseded rather than left unchanged. The option describing a $500,000 deduction and $2,000,000 threshold describes an older, smaller set of figures that predates the current statutory framework entirely. The option claiming there is no cap at all is wrong because Section 179 retains its own explicit statutory dollar cap and phase-out mechanism, which is separate from, and unaffected by, the unrelated 100% bonus depreciation provision under Section 168(k).
Source: IRC Section 179, as amended by the One Big Beautiful Bill Act, Pub. L. 119-21 (2025)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 010/037hard
An individual investor acquires qualified small business stock on August 1, 2025, in a corporation that meets the requirements of IRC Section 1202, including the increased $75,000,000 aggregate gross assets test that the One Big Beautiful Bill Act introduced for stock acquired after July 4, 2025. If the investor sells the stock after holding it for exactly four years, what portion of the eligible gain may be excluded from gross income?
A75%, under the tiered exclusion schedule the One Big Beautiful Bill Act introduced, which grants a 50% exclusion at a three-year holding period, 75% at four years, and 100% at five years, for stock acquired after July 4, 2025
B100%, because any qualified small business stock held longer than the pre-existing five-year requirement automatically qualifies for full exclusion regardless of the exact holding period
C0%, because the new tiered exclusion schedule only benefits stock held for the full five years, with no exclusion at all available before that point
D50%, because the One Big Beautiful Bill Act replaced the previous 100% exclusion available to five-year holders with a flat 50% rate across all holding periods
Correct answer: .
For qualified small business stock acquired after July 4, 2025, the One Big Beautiful Bill Act introduced a tiered exclusion under IRC Section 1202: a 50% exclusion of eligible gain at a three-year holding period, 75% at four years, and 100% at five years or more, alongside a raised $75,000,000 aggregate gross assets test and a higher $15,000,000 per-issuer gain cap. An investor who holds the stock for exactly four years therefore excludes 75% of eligible gain, not the full amount. The option claiming 100% wrongly treats the four-year mark as already qualifying for the maximum exclusion, when the schedule specifically reserves the full 100% exclusion for stock held five years or more. The option claiming 0% wrongly assumes no exclusion is available before the five-year mark, missing the entire point of the new tiered structure, which grants meaningful partial exclusions starting at three years. The option claiming the law cut the benefit to a flat 50% has the direction of the change backwards: the new schedule preserves the 100% exclusion for five-year holders and adds more generous partial exclusions at the three- and four-year marks on top of it, rather than reducing anything.
Source: IRC Section 1202, as amended by the One Big Beautiful Bill Act, Pub. L. 119-21 (2025)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 011/037medium
A corporation is computing its adjusted taxable income for purposes of the IRC Section 163(j) business interest expense limitation for a tax year beginning January 1, 2025. Under the One Big Beautiful Bill Act's amendment to Section 163(j), how is adjusted taxable income computed with respect to depreciation, amortization, and depletion?
ADepreciation, amortization, and depletion continue to be excluded from the computation entirely, continuing the stricter method that had applied to tax years beginning after 2021
BAdjusted taxable income is computed without any reference to depreciation, amortization, or depletion at all, since the One Big Beautiful Bill Act removed those items from the computation
CDepreciation, amortization, and depletion are added back only for tax years beginning before 2022, and the One Big Beautiful Bill Act made no change to the computation for any later tax year
DDepreciation, amortization, and depletion are added back to taxable income when computing adjusted taxable income, permanently restoring the more favorable method for tax years beginning after December 31, 2024
Correct answer: .
The One Big Beautiful Bill Act permanently restored the more favorable method of computing adjusted taxable income under IRC Section 163(j) by reinstating the addback of depreciation, amortization, and depletion for tax years beginning after December 31, 2024, reversing the stricter method that excluded those items and had applied to tax years beginning after December 31, 2021; because adding these items back increases adjusted taxable income, the change generally increases the amount of business interest expense a taxpayer may currently deduct. The option describing continued exclusion of those items describes the stricter, pre-existing method as if it still applied, when the new law specifically reverses it for 2025 and later years. The option claiming the items are removed from the computation altogether mischaracterizes the change; they are deliberately added back, not omitted from the calculation. The option claiming no change was made for years after 2021 gets the timing exactly backwards, since restoring the addback specifically for tax years beginning after December 31, 2024, is the entire point of the amendment.
Source: IRC Section 163(j), as amended by the One Big Beautiful Bill Act, Pub. L. 119-21 (2025)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 012/037easy
A calendar-year C corporation converts to S corporation status effective January 1, 2025. It held an appreciated asset with built-in gain as of that date and sells the asset in 2028 for a further gain. Under IRC Section 1374, is the corporation subject to the built-in gains tax on the portion of gain that existed as of the conversion date?
ANo, because the built-in gains tax was permanently repealed for all S corporations by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act
BYes, but only if the corporation sells the asset within one year of the S election, since the recognition period is limited to a single tax year
CYes, because 2028 falls within the five-year recognition period that began January 1, 2025, the first day of the corporation's first tax year as an S corporation
DNo, because the recognition period is ten years, and 2028 falls outside that ten-year window measured from the conversion date
Correct answer: .
The recognition period for the built-in gains tax under IRC Section 1374 is the five-year period beginning with the first day of the corporation's first tax year as an S corporation, which here runs from January 1, 2025 through the end of 2029; a sale in 2028 of an asset holding gain that had built up before the conversion falls squarely within that window and triggers the built-in gains tax, computed at the highest corporate rate under Section 11(b), on the recognized built-in gain. The option claiming outright repeal is wrong because the built-in gains tax remains part of current law; only the length of its recognition period has changed over time. The option describing a one-year window invents a recognition period that has never applied under any version of Section 1374. The option describing a ten-year window states the recognition period that applied before the PATH Act permanently shortened it to five years for tax years beginning on or after January 1, 2015, well before this corporation's 2025 conversion.
Source: IRC Section 1374(d)(7), as amended by the Protecting Americans from Tax Hikes (PATH) Act of 2015
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 013/037easy
Four unrelated individuals each contribute appreciated property to a newly formed domestic corporation solely in exchange for shares of its single class of common stock. Immediately after the exchange, the four property transferors together hold 75% of the corporation's outstanding shares; the remaining 25% is issued to a fifth individual solely in exchange for organizational services performed for the corporation. For the corporation's 2025 tax year, can the four property transferors treat their exchanges as tax-free under IRC Section 351?
ANo, because stock issued for services doesn't count toward the property transferors' control percentage even though it dilutes the total shares outstanding, so the group's 75% stake falls short of the 80% control required for nonrecognition
BYes, because Section 351 measures control only among the parties who transferred property, so the service provider's shares are excluded entirely and the four transferors are treated as owning 100% of the relevant stock
CNo, because Section 351 requires the property transferors to own 100% of the corporation's stock immediately after the exchange, not merely a controlling percentage
DYes, because the four transferors filed a joint statement with the corporation electing Section 351 treatment, and that election is what determines control rather than any fixed ownership percentage
Correct answer: .
Section 351(a) grants nonrecognition only when the persons who transferred property are, as a group, 'in control' of the corporation immediately after the exchange, and Section 368(c) defines control as owning at least 80% of the corporation's voting power and at least 80% of every other class of stock. Stock issued solely for services isn't treated as issued for property, so it doesn't count toward the transferors' side of that test, but it still counts in the total shares outstanding used as the denominator — which is exactly why the four property transferors' 75% stake, diluted by the service provider's 25% stake, falls under the 80% threshold. The option ignoring the service shares entirely misreads the rule: they're excluded from the numerator, not from the denominator. Section 351 has never required 100% ownership, only 80%. And Section 351 nonrecognition is automatic when its statutory conditions are met; there is no elective statement that substitutes for actually satisfying the control test.
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 014/037medium
An individual owns 60% of the outstanding stock of Corporation X. During Corporation X's 2025 tax year, the individual sells a parcel of investment land to Corporation X for $80,000, an amount below the individual's $95,000 basis in the land, realizing a $15,000 loss. Under IRC Section 267(a)(1), what is the tax treatment of this $15,000 loss?
AThe loss is fully deductible by the individual because Section 267 disallows losses only between two corporations under common control, not between an individual shareholder and a corporation the individual owns
BThe loss is disallowed to the individual because an individual owning more than 50% of a corporation's stock is a related person to that corporation under Section 267(b), but Corporation X may later offset any gain it recognizes on selling the land against this previously disallowed loss
CThe loss is deductible only to the extent it exceeds the individual's 60% ownership percentage, so the individual may deduct 40% of the $15,000 loss
DThe loss is disallowed to the individual, but Corporation X may claim an immediate $15,000 deduction of its own by stepping into the individual's basis in the land
Correct answer: .
Section 267(b) treats an individual who owns more than 50% of a corporation's outstanding stock as a related person to that corporation, and Section 267(a)(1) disallows any loss realized on a sale or exchange of property between related persons, regardless of the price paid or either party's intent — so the individual's $15,000 loss is nondeductible in 2025 and in every later year. The option allowing a full deduction is wrong because Section 267's related-person definitions reach individual-to-corporation ownership above 50%, not only corporation-to-corporation relationships. The option prorating the disallowance by ownership percentage invents a partial rule; Section 267(a)(1) disallowance is all-or-nothing, not proportional to the seller's stake. The option letting Corporation X deduct the loss outright misstates the actual relief Section 267(d) provides: the corporation doesn't get an immediate deduction, but it can reduce any gain it later recognizes when it eventually sells the land by the amount of the loss that was disallowed to the individual.
Source: IRC Section 267(a)(1), 267(b)(2), and 267(d)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 015/037easy
Corporation Z sells two items of depreciable business property during its 2025 tax year: manufacturing equipment purchased in 2021 and fully depreciated under MACRS, sold at a gain; and a non-residential office building placed in service in 1990, depreciated throughout using the straight-line method required for that type of property, also sold at a gain. Under IRC Sections 1245 and 1250, how much of each gain is recaptured as ordinary income because of depreciation?
ABoth gains are fully recaptured as ordinary income under Section 1245, which defines depreciable business property broadly enough to include real property such as office buildings
BNeither gain triggers any recapture, because both assets were held for more than one year and therefore qualify entirely for long-term capital gain treatment under Section 1231
CThe equipment's gain is recaptured as ordinary income under Section 1245 up to the full amount of depreciation previously claimed on it; the building's gain triggers no Section 1250 recapture because Section 1250 recaptures only depreciation in excess of straight-line, and the building's depreciation was already all straight-line
DThe building's gain is recaptured as ordinary income under Section 1250 up to the full amount of straight-line depreciation claimed on it, exactly like the equipment is recaptured under Section 1245
Correct answer: .
Section 1245 recaptures, as ordinary income, the gain on qualifying personal property (such as this equipment) up to the full amount of depreciation the taxpayer previously claimed on it. Section 1250 works differently: it recaptures as ordinary income only the depreciation claimed in excess of what straight-line depreciation would have produced. Non-residential real property placed in service after 1986, like this office building, was required to use the straight-line method for its entire depreciable life, so there is no excess-over-straight-line amount to recapture, and the building's gain instead flows through as Section 1231 gain (potentially long-term capital gain) with no Section 1250 ordinary-income component. The option applying Section 1245 to the building is wrong because Section 1245 property is defined to exclude standard depreciable real property of this kind. The option finding no recapture at all for the equipment ignores that Section 1245 recapture applies before any Section 1231 netting occurs. The option applying full recapture to the building confuses the mechanics of Section 1250, which only reaches excess depreciation, with those of Section 1245.
Source: IRC Sections 1245(a) and 1250(a) and (b)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 016/037easy
Partner A performs management services for a partnership and, under the partnership agreement, is entitled to a fixed $10,000 monthly payment for those services regardless of whether the partnership has any net income for the year. For the partnership's 2025 tax year, the partnership has a net loss before taking this payment into account. Under IRC Section 707(c), how is the $120,000 paid to Partner A during 2025 treated for federal income tax purposes?
AThe payments are treated as a nondeductible distribution of partnership capital, includible in Partner A's income only when Partner A actually withdraws the cash from the partnership
BBecause the partnership had a net loss for 2025 before the payment, the $120,000 is recharacterized as a return of Partner A's capital and excluded from Partner A's gross income
CThe payments simply reduce Partner A's outside basis in the partnership dollar-for-dollar and are excluded entirely from both the partnership's and Partner A's taxable income
DThe $120,000 is a guaranteed payment under Section 707(c), determined without regard to partnership income; the partnership treats it as an amount paid to a person who is not a partner in computing its ordinary income or loss, and Partner A includes it as ordinary income for the tax year that includes the end of the partnership's 2025 tax year
Correct answer: .
A payment to a partner for services, fixed in amount and payable without regard to whether the partnership has any net income, is a guaranteed payment under Section 707(c). For purposes of computing the partnership's own ordinary income or loss, the partnership treats the payment as if it were made to a non-partner, meaning it's factored into the partnership's bottom-line result the same way a payment to an outside contractor would be; the recipient partner then reports the payment as ordinary income for the recipient's tax year that includes the end of the partnership tax year in which the partnership deducted or capitalized it, entirely independent of whether the partnership showed a profit or a loss for that year. The option treating the payment as a distribution is wrong because a distribution's timing and character depend on partnership capital account rules, not Section 707(c)'s fixed-amount, income-independent test. The option recharacterizing the payment as a return of capital because of the loss year misunderstands guaranteed payments entirely — their defining feature is that they don't depend on whether the partnership is profitable. The option treating the payment as a basis reduction with no income consequence ignores that Section 707(c) treats it as includible ordinary income to the recipient.
Source: IRC Section 707(c)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 017/037medium
A partnership has a valid Section 754 election in effect for its 2025 tax year. During that year, one partner sells their entire partnership interest to an incoming partner at a price reflecting the current fair market value of the partnership's assets, which have appreciated well above their tax basis to the partnership (their inside basis). Under IRC Sections 754 and 743(b), what effect does the election have on the incoming partner's share of the partnership's inside basis in its assets?
ASection 743(b) requires the partnership to adjust its inside basis in assets solely with respect to the incoming partner, stepping up (or down) only that partner's share of inside basis to match the price paid for the interest, without changing any other partner's share of inside basis
BThe election automatically increases the inside basis of every partnership asset for all partners equally, spreading the step-up across every partner's capital account rather than isolating it to the incoming partner
CBecause outside basis always equals a partner's share of inside basis automatically whenever a partnership interest is sold, the Section 754 election has no additional effect on the incoming partner's position
DThe election applies only to this specific sale and must be separately re-elected by the partnership before it has any effect on any future transfer of a partnership interest
Correct answer: .
A Section 754 election activates Section 743(b), which lets the partnership adjust its inside basis in its assets, but only with respect to the transferee partner — stepping that partner's own share of inside basis up or down to match what the incoming partner actually paid for the interest, so that partner isn't taxed again on appreciation that had already accrued (and would already be taxed to the selling partner) before the purchase. The other partners' shares of inside basis are untouched by this adjustment. The option spreading the step-up across all partners is wrong because Section 743(b) adjustments are specific to the transferee, not partnership-wide. The option treating the election as unnecessary misunderstands exactly the problem 754 solves: without it, a transferee's outside basis (cost) and inside basis (share of the partnership's existing asset basis) diverge, and that gap only gets fixed through a valid election. The option requiring a fresh election for every future transfer is wrong because a Section 754 election, once made, applies to all distributions and transfers in that year and in every subsequent year unless the partnership obtains IRS consent to revoke it.
Source: IRC Sections 754 and 743(b)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 018/037hard
Loss Corp has a $2 million net operating loss carryforward and an equity value of $5 million immediately before an ownership change that occurs during its 2025 tax year. During the applicable three-year testing period, the percentage of Loss Corp's stock owned by 5%-shareholders increased by 60 percentage points from the lowest point reached during that period, which is what triggers the ownership change. The long-term tax-exempt rate published by the IRS for the month of the ownership change is 4%. Under IRC Section 382, and ignoring any built-in gain adjustment, what is the maximum amount of the pre-change NOL that Loss Corp may use to offset taxable income in the first full year after the ownership change?
A$2,000,000, because a 60-percentage-point ownership shift is only slightly above the 50-percentage-point threshold that triggers an ownership change, and Section 382 imposes no annual dollar cap once an ownership change merely occurs
B$200,000, because the annual Section 382 limitation equals Loss Corp's equity value immediately before the change ($5,000,000) multiplied by the long-term tax-exempt rate for the month of the change (4%)
C$80,000, because the limitation equals the $2,000,000 NOL carryforward itself multiplied by the 4% long-term tax-exempt rate
D$0, because an ownership change under Section 382 permanently forfeits the entire pre-change NOL carryforward rather than merely capping how much of it can be used each year
Correct answer: .
The Section 382 limitation for any post-change year equals the value of the loss corporation immediately before the ownership change, multiplied by the long-term tax-exempt rate published by the IRS for the month of the change. Here that's $5,000,000 multiplied by 4%, or $200,000 per year — an annual cap on using the $2,000,000 NOL, not a one-time cap and not a complete bar. The option finding no cap at all misreads the 50-percentage-point figure: that's merely the threshold that determines whether an ownership change has occurred, not a scaling factor for how severely the resulting limitation bites once it has. The option multiplying the NOL amount itself by the tax-exempt rate applies the rate to the wrong number; the formula runs off the corporation's value, not the size of its loss carryforward. The option treating the NOL as fully forfeited overstates what Section 382 does: the statute limits the annual rate at which the NOL can be absorbed against future income, and any unused limitation can still carry the NOL forward within its normal carryforward period, rather than erasing it outright.
Source: IRC Section 382(b) and 382(f)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 019/037medium
A publicly held corporation's chief executive officer, chief financial officer, and three other officers were the corporation's most highly compensated executive officers for financial reporting purposes for its 2020 tax year, making all five of them 'covered employees' under IRC Section 162(m) for that year. All five remain employed by the corporation for its 2025 tax year, though none of them is currently among the corporation's five most highly compensated executives for 2025. Under Section 162(m), can the corporation deduct compensation paid to each of these five individuals in 2025 to the extent it exceeds $1 million?
AYes for all five, because only the CEO and CFO carry covered-employee status forward into later years under the 'once a covered employee, always a covered employee' rule; the three other officers lose that status once they fall out of the top-five compensated group
BYes for all five, because covered-employee status under Section 162(m) must be re-tested every year based on that year's compensation ranking, with no carryover from a prior year's determination
CNo for all five, because under the 'once a covered employee, always a covered employee' rule added by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act, anyone who was a covered employee for any tax year beginning after December 31, 2016 remains a covered employee for every later year they stay employed by the corporation
DNo, but only for the CEO and CFO, since the $1 million deduction limit under Section 162(m) has never applied to any officer position other than those two
Correct answer: .
The Tax Cuts and Jobs Act added an 'once a covered employee, always a covered employee' rule to Section 162(m): anyone who was a covered employee for any tax year beginning after December 31, 2016 remains a covered employee for every subsequent year that person is employed by the corporation, regardless of whether their compensation later falls out of the top-five ranking that would otherwise define covered-employee status for a given year. Since all five individuals were covered employees in the 2020 tax year, all five remain covered employees in 2025, and the corporation's deduction for compensation paid to any of them in 2025 above $1 million remains disallowed. The option limiting the carryover rule to only the CEO and CFO is wrong because the rule locks in covered-employee status for whichever individuals held it in the triggering year, without regard to their specific title. The option requiring annual re-testing with no carryover describes the law as it stood before the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act changed it, not current law. The option confining the $1 million limit to the CEO and CFO ignores that Section 162(m) has long covered the CEO plus the next several most highly compensated officers, not just those two positions.
Source: IRC Section 162(m)(3) as amended by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 020/037easy
A self-employed consultant takes a prospective client to a restaurant for a business dinner during the consultant's 2025 tax year to discuss a potential engagement. The consultant personally attends the meal, and the $200 spent on food and beverages is not lavish or extravagant under the circumstances. Under IRC Section 274(n), how much of the $200 may the consultant deduct as a business expense?
A$200, because the meal was directly connected to actively discussing specific business with a potential client, and that direct connection removes the expense from the 50% limitation entirely
B$0, because the disallowance of entertainment expenses enacted by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act eliminated the deduction for any meal that could be considered a form of entertaining a client
C$160, because Section 274(n) limits the deduction to 80% of the cost for any meal connected to actively soliciting new business from a prospective client
D$100, because Section 274(n)(1) limits the deduction for an otherwise-deductible business meal to 50% of its cost, even though the meal otherwise satisfies the ordinary-and-necessary, presence, and not-lavish-or-extravagant requirements
Correct answer: .
Section 274(n)(1) generally limits the deduction for an otherwise-allowable business meal expense to 50% of its cost, so the consultant may deduct only $100 of the $200 spent, even though the meal is ordinary and necessary, the consultant was present, the cost wasn't lavish or extravagant, and the meal was with a genuine current or potential business contact. The option allowing a full deduction is wrong because there is no exception removing client-solicitation meals from the 50% limitation; the direct-business-connection requirement determines whether the expense is deductible at all, not whether the 50% cap applies once it is. The option disallowing the deduction entirely confuses the separate, harsher rule that eliminated deductions for entertainment expenses (like tickets or outings) with the business meal rule, which Congress left intact at the 50% level even while eliminating entertainment deductions. The option allowing an 80% deduction borrows the special rate that applies only to meals subject to the Department of Transportation's hours-of-service limits, such as those of certain long-haul transportation workers, which has no application to this consultant's client dinner.
Source: IRC Section 274(n)(1) and (n)(3)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 021/037hard
Corporation Q's average annual adjusted financial statement income (AFSI), computed under IRC Section 56A, is $1.4 billion over the three-tax-year testing period ending with its 2025 tax year. Corporation Q is not a member of a foreign-parented multinational group. Under IRC Sections 55 and 59(k), is Corporation Q an 'applicable corporation' subject to the corporate alternative minimum tax (CAMT) enacted by the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022, and if so, at what rate is its AFSI taxed?
AYes, because its average AFSI over the testing period exceeds the $1 billion statutory threshold that applies to a corporation that isn't part of a foreign-parented multinational group, so CAMT applies a 15% minimum tax to its AFSI
BNo, because the applicable-corporation threshold is measured against regular taxable income under Section 63, not against book-based AFSI, and Corporation Q's taxable income could be well below $1.4 billion even with that much AFSI
CYes, and CAMT applies a 21% rate to Corporation Q's AFSI, matching the flat corporate income tax rate under Section 11 so that book income and regular taxable income are taxed identically
DNo, because the $1 billion AFSI threshold applies only to a corporation that is a member of a foreign-parented multinational group; a purely domestic corporation like Corporation Q is subject to CAMT only if its AFSI exceeds $100 million
Correct answer: .
The corporate alternative minimum tax enacted by the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022 applies a 15% minimum tax to the adjusted financial statement income of an 'applicable corporation' — generally one whose average AFSI over the applicable three-year testing period exceeds $1 billion, or, for a corporation that is a member of a foreign-parented multinational group, one whose U.S. members' average AFSI exceeds a separate $100 million threshold. Corporation Q's $1.4 billion average AFSI exceeds the $1 billion threshold that applies to it as a corporation outside any foreign-parented group, so it is an applicable corporation subject to the 15% CAMT rate on its AFSI (with the regular corporate tax and certain other amounts credited against, not stacked on top of, that liability). The option measuring the threshold against regular taxable income is wrong because CAMT's entire purpose is to reach large corporations' book income even when their regular taxable income is much lower; the threshold itself is defined in terms of AFSI. The option applying a 21% rate confuses CAMT's 15% minimum-tax rate with the unrelated 21% flat corporate income tax rate under Section 11. The option swapping the two thresholds has them backwards: the $100 million figure applies to foreign-parented group members, and $1 billion is the threshold for a corporation like Corporation Q that isn't part of one.
Source: IRC Sections 55, 56A, and 59(k), as added by the Inflation Reduction Act of 2022
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 022/037easy
A newly formed domestic limited liability company has two members and does not file Form 8832 to elect any federal tax classification for its 2025 tax year. Under Treasury Regulation Section 301.7701-3, how is this LLC classified by default, and how would the default classification change if the LLC instead had only one member?
ABy default, a domestic LLC is classified as a corporation regardless of its number of members, unless its members file Form 8832 to elect partnership treatment
BBy default, a domestic LLC with two or more members that makes no election is classified as a partnership; if it instead had only one member, the default classification would be a disregarded entity, with the LLC's activities reported on its sole owner's own return
CBy default, a two-member domestic LLC is classified as an S corporation, and a single-member LLC is classified as a C corporation, based solely on the number of owners
DThe default classification depends on which U.S. state formed the LLC: some states' LLC statutes default to partnership treatment for federal tax purposes while others default to disregarded-entity treatment, regardless of the number of members
Correct answer: .
Treasury Regulation Section 301.7701-3 provides that an eligible entity that doesn't file an election is classified under a default rule: a domestic eligible entity with two or more members defaults to partnership classification, while a domestic eligible entity with a single owner defaults to being disregarded as an entity separate from its owner, meaning that owner reports the LLC's income and deductions directly on the owner's own return rather than on a separate partnership return. The option defaulting every LLC to corporate status has the rule backwards: corporate classification is available only by affirmative election under these regulations, never as the default for an eligible entity like a typical LLC. The option defaulting to S corporation or C corporation status based on member count is wrong because S corporation status is never a default; it requires its own affirmative election under Section 1362 after the entity is already classified as a corporation. The option making the default classification depend on the state of formation is wrong because Section 301.7701-3's default classification rule is a uniform matter of federal tax law, applied the same way nationwide regardless of state-law variations in how LLCs themselves are organized.
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 023/037medium
A two-member partnership's written agreement specially allocates 90% of a particular year's depreciation deductions to Partner A while splitting all other partnership income and loss items evenly between the two partners. The agreement does not maintain partner capital accounts in accordance with the Treasury Regulations, does not provide for liquidating distributions according to positive capital account balances, and does not require either partner to restore a capital account deficit upon liquidation. For the partnership's 2025 tax year, under IRC Section 704(b), how must this special depreciation allocation be treated?
AThe allocation is automatically respected for tax purposes because the partners voluntarily agreed to it in a written partnership agreement, and Section 704(b) does not look behind a validly executed agreement
BBecause the allocation lacks economic effect under the capital-account-maintenance, liquidation, and deficit-restoration requirements of the Treasury Regulations, it is disregarded, and Partner A's distributive share of the depreciation is instead redetermined according to the partners' interests in the partnership based on all the facts and circumstances
CThe allocation is valid so long as it does not reduce the partnership's total tax liability, regardless of whether the partnership agreement satisfies any capital-account or liquidation requirements
DThe allocation is treated as a guaranteed payment to Partner A under Section 707(c), taxable to Partner A as ordinary income regardless of the partnership's overall profit or loss for the year
Correct answer: .
Under IRC Section 704(b) and the substantial economic effect regulations, a special allocation is respected only if it has economic effect, which the regulations test through three linked requirements: capital accounts maintained under the regulations' rules, liquidating distributions made in accordance with positive capital account balances, and an obligation for any partner with a capital account deficit at liquidation to restore that deficit (or an equivalent qualified income offset). Because this partnership's agreement satisfies none of the three, the depreciation allocation lacks economic effect and must be disregarded; the deduction is instead reallocated according to each partner's overall interest in the partnership, determined by weighing the partners' relative contributions, economic risk of loss, and rights to distributions and capital, rather than by whatever label the agreement uses. The option suggesting mere written agreement is automatically enough ignores that Section 704(b) exists precisely to test allocations against economic substance, not just paper consent. The option conditioning validity on the partnership's aggregate tax liability confuses this allocation rule with wholly separate anti-abuse rules and applies no standard the statute or regulations actually use. The option recharacterizing the allocation as a guaranteed payment misapplies Section 707(c), which covers payments determined without regard to partnership income, not a percentage allocation of an actual partnership tax item like depreciation.
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 024/037easy
A business owner exchanges a warehouse it has held for productive use in its trade or business for another warehouse of like kind, to be held for the same purpose, completing the exchange during its 2025 tax year. In the same year, an unrelated business exchanges a fleet of delivery trucks used in its trade or business for a different fleet of delivery trucks of like kind. Under IRC Section 1031 as amended by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act, which exchange, if either, qualifies for nonrecognition of gain?
ANeither exchange qualifies, because the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act repealed Section 1031 nonrecognition treatment entirely for tax years after 2017
BBoth exchanges qualify, because Section 1031 nonrecognition still applies to any property, whether real or personal, held for productive use in a trade or business or for investment
COnly the truck exchange qualifies, because the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act limited Section 1031 to exchanges of tangible personal property used in a trade or business, excluding real estate
DOnly the warehouse exchange qualifies, because the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act narrowed Section 1031 nonrecognition to exchanges of real property held for productive use in a trade or business or for investment, exchanged for real property of a like kind held for the same purposes, and personal property such as vehicles no longer qualifies
Correct answer: .
The Tax Cuts and Jobs Act amended IRC Section 1031(a)(1) for exchanges completed after December 31, 2017, replacing its former reference to 'property' with 'real property,' so nonrecognition treatment under Section 1031 is now available only for real property held for productive use in a trade or business or for investment that is exchanged for real property of a like kind held for the same purposes; this warehouse-for-warehouse swap fits squarely within that narrowed scope. The truck-for-truck exchange no longer qualifies, because tangible personal property, including vehicles, was carved out of Section 1031 entirely by the same amendment and instead triggers recognized gain or loss on the exchange. The option treating both exchanges as qualifying describes the pre-2018 rule that covered a much broader range of business and investment property, not current law. The option claiming Section 1031 nonrecognition was repealed entirely overstates the amendment, which narrowed the provision's scope rather than eliminating it. The option qualifying only the truck exchange has the current rule exactly backwards, since personal property is what the amendment excluded, not what it now uniquely covers.
Source: IRC Section 1031(a), as amended by the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act of 2017 (Pub. L. 115-97)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 025/037hard
A domestic corporation incurs $2,000,000 of research and experimental expenditures during its 2025 tax year: $1,500,000 for research activities performed within the United States and $500,000 for research activities performed by a contractor outside the United States. Under IRC Section 174 as amended by the One Big Beautiful Bill Act (enacted July 4, 2025), how must the corporation treat these two categories of expenditures for its 2025 tax year?
AThe corporation may deduct the entire $1,500,000 of domestic research expenditures currently under new IRC Section 174A, while the $500,000 of foreign research expenditures must still be capitalized and amortized ratably over 15 years under Section 174
BBoth the domestic and foreign research expenditures must be capitalized and amortized ratably over 5 years, because the One Big Beautiful Bill Act extended the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act's capitalization requirement to all research expenditures regardless of where the research is performed
CBoth the domestic and foreign research expenditures may be deducted currently in full, because the One Big Beautiful Bill Act restored full expensing for all research and experimental expenditures without regard to where the research is performed
DThe corporation may deduct the entire $2,000,000 currently, but only if it also claims the full research credit under Section 41 on the same expenditures, since Section 174A conditions immediate expensing on a matching credit claim
Correct answer: .
The One Big Beautiful Bill Act added new IRC Section 174A, which restores immediate deductibility (or, at the taxpayer's election, amortization over not less than 60 months) for domestic research or experimental expenditures paid or incurred in tax years beginning after December 31, 2024, reversing the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act's mandatory 5-year capitalization for that category. Foreign research expenditures, however, were not restored to current deductibility; Section 174, as amended, continues to require them to be capitalized and amortized ratably over 15 years. So this corporation currently deducts its $1,500,000 of domestic research costs under Section 174A while still amortizing its $500,000 of foreign research costs over 15 years. The option capitalizing both categories over 5 years describes the prior Tax Cuts and Jobs Act regime the One Big Beautiful Bill Act partially reversed, and even that regime never used a 5-year period for foreign costs. The option allowing full current deduction of both categories ignores that the restored immediate expensing applies only to domestic research. The option conditioning immediate expensing on a matching research credit claim invents a requirement; Section 174A's expensing and Section 41's credit are separate provisions, coordinated only through the Section 280C reduction, not a mandatory joint election.
Source: IRC Sections 174 and 174A, as amended by the One Big Beautiful Bill Act (Pub. L. 119-21, enacted July 4, 2025)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 026/037medium
A partnership borrows $200,000 from a bank. Partner A personally guarantees repayment of the loan and would bear the ultimate economic burden if the partnership defaulted and its assets were insufficient to satisfy the debt; Partner B has no such obligation. Later in the same tax year, the partnership refinances the loan on a strictly nonrecourse basis, so that no partner bears personal liability if the partnership defaults, and the balance remains $200,000. Under IRC Section 752, how do these two financing arrangements differently affect the partners' outside bases in their partnership interests?
ANeither financing arrangement affects either partner's outside basis, because Section 752 applies only to liabilities incurred to purchase partnership property, not liabilities incurred through a subsequent refinancing
BUnder both arrangements, the $200,000 must be allocated entirely to Partner A, because Section 752 always allocates partnership debt to whichever partner has the closest economic connection to the underlying loan agreement
CWhile the loan is recourse, the entire $200,000 is allocated to Partner A's outside basis because Partner A bears the economic risk of loss on the debt; once refinanced as nonrecourse, the debt is instead allocated between both partners generally according to their shares of partnership profits, which can substantially reduce Partner A's basis and increase Partner B's
DWhile the loan is recourse, the $200,000 is split evenly between the two partners regardless of the guarantee, because Section 752 treats general partnership recourse debt as jointly and severally shared for basis purposes; once refinanced as nonrecourse, the debt is instead allocated entirely to Partner A because a personal guarantor remains liable under state law even on a nonrecourse instrument
Correct answer: .
Under IRC Section 752 and its regulations, a partnership liability is recourse to the extent a partner (or related person) bears the economic risk of loss for it, most commonly by guaranteeing payment, and a recourse liability is allocated to the partner or partners who bear that risk; a partner's increased share of partnership liabilities is treated as a deemed cash contribution that increases outside basis under Section 752(a). Because Partner A alone guarantees the loan while it is recourse, the full $200,000 increases only Partner A's basis. Once refinanced as nonrecourse, no partner bears the economic risk of loss, so the regulations under Section 1.752-3 instead allocate the liability among the partners generally in accordance with their shares of partnership profits; a decrease in a partner's share of liabilities is treated as a deemed cash distribution that decreases outside basis under Section 752(b), which is exactly what happens to Partner A's basis on the refinancing, while Partner B's basis increases correspondingly. The option denying any basis effect ignores that both the original financing and the refinancing are covered by Section 752. The option allocating both types of debt to whichever partner has the closest connection to the loan invents a standard the regulations do not use for nonrecourse debt. The option splitting recourse debt evenly regardless of the guarantee, and shifting nonrecourse debt entirely to the guarantor based on state law liability, both misstate the regulations, which allocate recourse debt by economic risk of loss, not an even split, and nonrecourse debt by profit shares, not personal guarantor status.
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 027/037hard
An S corporation shareholder begins the 2025 tax year with $10,000 of stock basis. During the year, the shareholder's pro rata share of the S corporation's items includes $30,000 of ordinary income, and the shareholder also receives a $25,000 non-dividend cash distribution and is allocated a $22,000 ordinary loss, all with respect to the same 2025 tax year. Under IRC Sections 1366 and 1367 and the applicable Treasury Regulations, in what order must these items adjust the shareholder's stock basis, and what is the shareholder's ending stock basis before considering any debt basis?
AThe loss is applied first, reducing basis to zero and suspending $12,000 of loss; the distribution is then applied, but since basis is already zero, the entire $25,000 distribution is taxed as capital gain; the income is applied last, restoring basis to $30,000
BAll three items are netted together in a single step ($10,000 + $30,000 income minus $25,000 distribution minus $22,000 loss), producing an ending basis of negative $7,000, which is not permitted, so the entire negative amount is suspended as a loss carryforward with basis remaining at $10,000
CThe distribution is applied first, reducing basis to zero and causing $15,000 of the distribution to be taxed as capital gain; the income is applied next, increasing basis to $30,000; the loss is applied last, reducing basis to $8,000
DThe income is applied first, increasing basis to $40,000; the distribution is applied next, reducing basis to $15,000 with none of it taxable since basis was sufficient; the loss is applied last, reducing basis to zero with $7,000 of the loss suspended and carried forward
Correct answer: .
Treasury Regulation Section 1.1367-1(f) fixes the order in which an S corporation shareholder's stock basis is adjusted each year: basis is increased first for the year's income items, then decreased (but not below zero) for distributions, and only then decreased for the year's loss and deduction items, with any loss that would take basis below zero instead suspended and carried forward under Section 1366(d). Applying that order here, the $30,000 of income raises the shareholder's basis from $10,000 to $40,000; the $25,000 non-dividend distribution then reduces basis to $15,000, and because basis was sufficient to absorb the full distribution, none of it is taxed as gain; the $22,000 loss is applied last against the remaining $15,000 of basis, using up all of it and suspending the excess $7,000 of loss for use in a future year when the shareholder generates additional basis. The option applying the loss before the distribution and income gets the mandatory order backwards, which is exactly the sequencing error the regulation exists to prevent. The option netting all three items in one step ignores that the regulation requires a strict sequence, not a simultaneous net computation, and wrongly treats negative basis as a valid intermediate result. The option applying the distribution before the income correctly identifies that distributions come before losses but incorrectly puts the distribution ahead of the income increase, which the regulation does not permit.
Source: IRC Sections 1366(d) and 1367(a); Treas. Reg. Section 1.1367-1(f)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 028/037medium
A partner sells their entire interest in a partnership for $500,000. The partnership has no debt, and if it sold all of its assets for fair market value immediately before the sale, $120,000 of the resulting gain would be attributable to the partnership's unrealized receivables and substantially appreciated inventory. The selling partner's outside basis in the partnership interest is $300,000. Under IRC Section 751(a), how must the selling partner characterize the $200,000 of gain recognized on the sale?
AThe entire $200,000 gain is treated as capital gain, because Section 751 applies only to distributions of property by a partnership, not to a sale of a partnership interest between a partner and a third party
B$120,000 of the gain, representing the selling partner's share of the value attributable to the partnership's unrealized receivables and substantially appreciated inventory, is treated as ordinary income; the remaining $80,000 is treated as capital gain from the sale of the partnership interest
CThe entire $200,000 gain is treated as ordinary income, because the presence of any unrealized receivables or substantially appreciated inventory in a partnership's assets converts the entire gain on a sale of a partnership interest into ordinary income
D$120,000 of the gain is treated as capital gain because it reflects appreciation the partnership has not yet realized, while the remaining $80,000 is treated as ordinary income as the return on the partner's original capital investment
Correct answer: .
IRC Section 751(a) requires that when a partner sells or exchanges an interest in a partnership, the portion of the amount realized attributable to the partnership's unrealized receivables and inventory items that have appreciated substantially in value (inventory whose fair market value exceeds 120% of the partnership's adjusted basis in it, together known as 'hot assets') is treated as an amount realized from the sale of property other than a capital asset, i.e., ordinary income, rather than capital gain. Here, $120,000 of the seller's total $200,000 gain is attributable to hot assets and must be reported as ordinary income, while the remaining $80,000, attributable to the partnership's other, non-hot assets, is capital gain. The option treating the entire gain as capital gain wrongly assumes Section 751 is limited to partnership distributions; the statute applies equally to sales and exchanges of partnership interests. The option treating the entire gain as ordinary income overstates the rule, which recharacterizes only the portion of gain attributable to hot assets, not the entire transaction merely because hot assets exist somewhere in the partnership. The option reversing which portion is ordinary versus capital has the mechanism backwards: the hot-asset-attributable gain is ordinary precisely because it represents income the partnership itself would have recognized as ordinary (receivables, appreciated inventory), not because it is unrealized appreciation.
Source: IRC Section 751(a) and (d) (unrealized receivables and substantially appreciated inventory)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 029/037easy
A closely held domestic corporation is owned 70% by three individuals, with no more than five individuals owning more than 50% in value of its stock during the last half of its 2025 tax year, and 65% of its adjusted ordinary gross income for the year consists of dividends and interest from its investment portfolio, with the remainder from an active consulting business it also operates. The corporation does not distribute this income to its shareholders. Under IRC Sections 541-544, is this corporation subject to the personal holding company tax for its 2025 tax year?
ANo, because the personal holding company tax applies only to corporations that conduct no active trade or business whatsoever, and this corporation operates an active consulting business
BNo, because the personal holding company tax requires that 100% of a corporation's adjusted ordinary gross income consist of dividends, interest, rents, and royalties, and this corporation's income falls short of that threshold
CYes, because the corporation satisfies both required tests: more than 50% in value of its stock is owned by five or fewer individuals during the last half of the tax year, and at least 60% of its adjusted ordinary gross income for the year is personal holding company income; it is taxed at 20% on its undistributed personal holding company income
DYes, but only because the corporation failed to distribute its investment income; had it distributed all of the dividends and interest to its shareholders during the year, the stock ownership test alone would still make the corporation a personal holding company
Correct answer: .
Under IRC Sections 541 through 544, a corporation is a personal holding company, and subject to the 20% personal holding company tax on its undistributed personal holding company income, only if it meets both a stock ownership test (more than 50% in value of its outstanding stock owned, directly or indirectly, by five or fewer individuals at any time during the last half of the tax year) and an income test (at least 60% of its adjusted ordinary gross income for the year consists of personal holding company income, such as dividends and interest). This corporation's three-individual, 70% ownership satisfies the ownership test, and its 65% dividend-and-interest concentration clears the 60% income threshold, so both tests are met and the tax applies to whatever personal holding company income remains undistributed. The option requiring no active business at all is wrong because the personal holding company rules apply based on a corporation's passive income concentration, not on whether it has any active operations elsewhere. The option requiring 100% passive income overstates the income test, which is set at 60%, not 100%. The option suggesting the tax applies only because of the failure to distribute correctly identifies that distributions reduce undistributed income subject to the tax, but incorrectly claims the stock ownership test alone would make the corporation a personal holding company; both tests must independently be satisfied regardless of distributions.
Source: IRC Sections 541-544 (personal holding company tax, definition, and income test)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 030/037easy
A corporation purchases substantially all of the assets of an unrelated business in a taxable asset acquisition completed during its 2025 tax year. Among the assets acquired are goodwill and a covenant not to compete entered into with the seller's former owner, allocated a combined $1,500,000 of the purchase price. Under IRC Section 197, how must the corporation recover the cost of this goodwill and covenant not to compete for federal income tax purposes?
AThe corporation must amortize the combined $1,500,000 ratably over 15 years (180 months), beginning with the month the assets were acquired, because goodwill and covenants not to compete entered into in connection with acquiring a business are both Section 197 intangibles
BThe corporation may deduct the entire $1,500,000 currently in the year of acquisition, because Section 197 permits immediate expensing of any intangible asset acquired as part of a trade or business acquisition
CThe corporation must capitalize the $1,500,000 but may not amortize or otherwise recover any of it until the acquired business is sold or liquidated, because goodwill has no determinable useful life
DThe corporation must amortize the goodwill over 15 years but may currently deduct the entire amount allocated to the covenant not to compete, because covenants not to compete are not Section 197 intangibles
Correct answer: .
IRC Section 197 requires that the cost of most intangible assets acquired in connection with the acquisition of a trade or business, including goodwill, going concern value, and covenants not to compete entered into in connection with such an acquisition, be capitalized and amortized ratably over a fixed 15-year (180-month) period starting with the month of acquisition, regardless of the intangible's actual expected useful life. Both the goodwill and the covenant not to compete here are Section 197 intangibles, so the full $1,500,000 is amortized together over 15 years. The option allowing immediate expensing misstates Section 197, which mandates amortization rather than offering an expensing option for these acquired intangibles. The option disallowing any recovery until sale or liquidation reflects how goodwill was sometimes treated before Section 197 was enacted, when it lacked a determinable useful life for tax purposes, but Section 197 assigns it a fixed statutory 15-year period regardless. The option treating the covenant not to compete as outside Section 197 is incorrect; a covenant not to compete entered into in connection with an acquisition of a trade or business is expressly listed among Section 197 intangibles and shares the same 15-year amortization period as goodwill.
Source: IRC Section 197(a), (c), (d) (amortization of goodwill and other acquired intangibles)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 031/037easy
A parent corporation has owned 85% of the voting stock and 85% of the total value of the stock of its subsidiary continuously since the subsidiary was formed. During its 2025 tax year, the subsidiary completely liquidates, distributing all of its assets to the parent in cancellation of the subsidiary's stock. The subsidiary's assets have appreciated well above their adjusted basis. Under IRC Sections 332 and 337, what are the tax consequences of this liquidation to the parent and the subsidiary?
AThe parent recognizes capital gain on the appreciation in the subsidiary's assets as if it had sold its stock in the subsidiary, while the subsidiary recognizes no gain or loss on the distribution
BBoth the parent and the subsidiary recognize gain on the appreciation, exactly as they would if the subsidiary had instead sold all of its assets to an unrelated third party and then distributed the sale proceeds
CNeither the parent nor the subsidiary recognizes any gain, but the parent takes a fair-market-value basis in the assets received, resetting the assets' basis as of the liquidation date
DNeither the parent nor the subsidiary recognizes any gain, and the parent takes a carryover basis in the subsidiary's assets equal to the subsidiary's own adjusted basis in them immediately before the liquidation
Correct answer: .
Because the parent owns at least 80% of the voting power and at least 80% of the total value of the subsidiary's stock, and that ownership is maintained through the completion of the liquidation, IRC Section 332(a) allows the parent to recognize no gain or loss on receiving the liquidating distribution in cancellation of its subsidiary stock, and Section 337(a) separately allows the subsidiary to recognize no gain or loss on distributing its property to this 80%-or-more distributee parent. Under Section 334(b)(1), the parent then takes the same basis in the assets received, and the same holding period, that the subsidiary had in those assets immediately before the liquidation, rather than a fresh fair-market-value basis. The option treating this like a stock sale by the parent misapplies the general taxable-liquidation rule of Section 331, which does not apply once the 80%-ownership requirements of Section 332 are satisfied. The option requiring gain recognition at both levels describes what would happen in an unrelated third-party asset sale followed by a taxable liquidating distribution, the opposite of the tax-free treatment Sections 332 and 337 provide for an 80%-or-more-owned subsidiary. The option denying gain but granting a fair-market-value basis step-up is wrong because nonrecognition under Sections 332 and 337 is paired with carryover basis under Section 334(b)(1), not a stepped-up basis, which would inconsistently let appreciation permanently escape taxation.
Source: IRC Sections 332(a), 337(a), and 334(b)(1) (liquidation of an 80%-or-more-owned subsidiary)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 032/037easy
A C corporation has $4,000,000 of taxable income for its 2025 tax year, computed without regard to any charitable contribution deduction, any dividends-received deduction, any net operating loss carryback, and certain other adjustments specified by IRC Section 170(b)(2). During the year, the corporation makes $500,000 of cash contributions to public charities, its only charitable contributions for the year. Under IRC Section 170(b)(2), how much of this contribution may the corporation deduct for its 2025 tax year, and what happens to any excess?
AThe corporation may deduct the full $500,000 in 2025, because corporations, unlike individual taxpayers, face no percentage-of-income ceiling on charitable contribution deductions
BThe corporation may deduct only $200,000 in 2025, corresponding to a 5% of taxable income limit, and the remaining $300,000 is permanently disallowed with no carryforward available
CThe corporation may deduct $400,000 in 2025, corresponding to the 10% of taxable income limit under Section 170(b)(2), and the remaining $100,000 may be carried forward and deducted in any of the succeeding five tax years, subject to that year's own 10% limit
DThe corporation may deduct the full $500,000 in 2025 because it falls below a $1,000,000 safe-harbor threshold under Section 170(b)(2), below which the percentage limitation does not apply to any corporation
Correct answer: .
IRC Section 170(b)(2) generally limits a C corporation's charitable contribution deduction for a tax year to 10% of its taxable income, computed without regard to the charitable contribution deduction itself and certain other specified items; here, 10% of the corporation's $4,000,000 taxable income base is $400,000, so only $400,000 of the $500,000 contributed may be deducted in 2025. Under Section 170(d)(2), the disallowed $100,000 excess is not lost; it may be carried forward and deducted in any of the five succeeding tax years, subject to that year's own 10% limit, with no carryback permitted and any amount still unused after the five-year carryforward period expiring unused. The option allowing an unlimited deduction ignores that Section 170(b)(2) imposes exactly this kind of percentage ceiling on corporations, distinct from the different percentage limits that apply to individual taxpayers. The option applying a 5% limit with no carryforward uses the wrong percentage and wrongly denies the carryforward the statute expressly provides. The option describing a $1,000,000 safe harbor below which no percentage limit applies invents a threshold that does not exist in Section 170(b)(2), which applies its percentage limitation to corporate charitable contributions regardless of the dollar amount involved.
Source: IRC Section 170(b)(2) and (d)(2) (corporate charitable contribution limit and carryforward)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 033/037hard
An individual owns 60 of a corporation's 100 outstanding shares outright. The individual's adult child owns the other 40 shares outright. In a single transaction, the corporation redeems all 60 shares the individual owns, leaving the child as the corporation's sole remaining shareholder. Immediately after the redemption, the individual holds no stock, is not an officer, director, or employee of the corporation, and has no interest in it other than as a creditor on a loan the individual made to the corporation that remains outstanding. Under IRC Section 302(b)(3) and the family-attribution waiver in Section 302(c)(2), what must the individual do, in addition to meeting the conditions already described, to treat the redemption as a sale or exchange rather than as a dividend distribution?
ANothing further; because the redemption terminated 100% of the shares the individual held directly, the redemption automatically qualifies for exchange treatment regardless of the child's continuing ownership
BFile an agreement with the tax return for the year of the redemption to notify the IRS if the individual acquires any forbidden interest in the corporation within 10 years, because without that agreement and compliance with the waiver's other conditions, the child's remaining shares are attributed to the individual under family attribution and the redemption would otherwise be taxed as a dividend
CWait at least 10 years after the redemption before filing any return reporting the transaction, since Section 302(c)(2) treats the redemption as incomplete until the 10-year monitoring period has fully elapsed
DHave the child also sell a portion of their remaining shares back to the corporation within the same tax year, since Section 302(c)(2) requires every family member's holdings to be reduced before any waiver can apply
Correct answer: .
Because the individual's child continues to directly own all 40 remaining shares, the family-attribution rules of Section 318(a)(1) attribute the child's shares to the individual, so the individual is not treated as having terminated their entire interest merely by having the corporation redeem the shares held directly — without more, the redemption would be taxed as a dividend to the extent of earnings and profits. Section 302(c)(2)'s waiver lets the individual disregard the family-attributed shares for purposes of the complete-termination test in Section 302(b)(3), but only if the individual retains no interest in the corporation other than as a creditor, does not acquire any further interest within 10 years except by bequest or inheritance, and files an agreement with the return for the redemption year to notify the IRS of any prohibited acquisition during that period. The response claiming the redemption automatically qualifies ignores that the child's attributed shares block complete termination without the waiver being properly invoked. The response describing a mandatory 10-year wait before filing any return confuses the forward-looking 10-year monitoring period, during which a prohibited acquisition must be disclosed if it happens, with a condition precedent to filing at all. The response requiring the child to also sell shares misstates the waiver, which operates by having the redeemed shareholder disclaim attribution, not by requiring every family member to reduce their own holdings.
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 034/037medium
Corporation X merges into Corporation Y in a transaction that fully qualifies as a statutory merger under the law of the state where both corporations are organized, with Corporation Y surviving. Corporation Y pays solely cash to Corporation X's shareholders in exchange for their Corporation X stock, and X's shareholders receive no stock or other equity interest in Y. Under IRC Section 368(a)(1)(A) and Treasury Regulation Section 1.368-1(e), does this transaction qualify as a tax-free reorganization?
AYes, because Section 368(a)(1)(A) defines a reorganization as any statutory merger or consolidation recognized as such under applicable state law, and the statute does not impose any further requirement
BYes, but only if Corporation Y also obtains a private letter ruling from the IRS confirming the transaction's tax treatment before the merger closes
CNo, because Section 368(a)(1)(A) itself expressly requires that at least 50% of the consideration paid to the target's shareholders consist of the acquiring corporation's stock
DNo, because qualifying as a statutory merger under state law satisfies only the label in Section 368(a)(1)(A); Treasury Regulation Section 1.368-1(e) separately requires that a substantial part of the value of the target shareholders' proprietary interest be preserved in the form of an equity stake in the surviving or controlling corporation, which an all-cash merger does not provide
Correct answer: .
Section 368(a)(1)(A)'s own text defines a reorganization as simply 'a statutory merger or consolidation,' without stating any continuity-of-interest percentage or other substantive requirement — satisfying state merger law is necessary but not sufficient. Treasury Regulation Section 1.368-1(e) imposes the separate continuity-of-interest doctrine, requiring that a substantial part of the value of the proprietary interests in the target corporation be preserved through stock or other equity participation in the acquiring or a related corporation; this exists precisely to stop transactions that are economically indistinguishable from a cash sale from obtaining nonrecognition treatment merely because they are labeled a merger under state corporate law. Because Corporation X's shareholders receive only cash and retain no equity stake in Corporation Y, continuity of interest is not preserved, and the transaction fails to qualify despite satisfying the state-law merger label. The response treating the state-law label as sufficient on its own ignores that the continuity requirement comes from the regulations, not the statute's bare text, but applies regardless. The response requiring an IRS ruling confuses optional taxpayer comfort with a legal precondition; no ruling is required for a transaction to qualify as a reorganization. The response citing a fixed 50% stock-consideration threshold in the statute itself misattributes a continuity-of-interest proportion, which arises from regulatory and judicial practice rather than from any percentage written into Section 368(a)(1)(A).
Source: IRC Section 368(a)(1)(A) and Treasury Regulation Section 1.368-1(b), (e)(1)(i)
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 035/037easy
Two C corporations, Corporation M and Corporation N, are members of the same brother-sister controlled group for their entire 2025 tax years, as determined under IRC Section 1563(a) with the more-than-50%-ownership substitution that Section 179(d)(7) applies in place of the usual 80% test. Each corporation separately places in service qualifying Section 179 property well within the overall per-corporation dollar limitation for 2025. Under IRC Section 179(d)(6), how must Corporation M and Corporation N treat the Section 179 dollar limitation for their 2025 tax years?
AThe two corporations are treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of the Section 179 dollar limitation, so they share one combined limitation for the group, which must be apportioned between them in the manner prescribed by Treasury regulations rather than each corporation separately claiming the full limitation
BEach corporation independently qualifies for the full Section 179 dollar limitation on its own return, because the controlled-group aggregation rule in Section 179(d)(6) applies only to partnerships and S corporations, not to C corporations under common control
CThe two corporations must combine their qualifying property into a single Section 179 election made jointly on one consolidated return, because common control under Section 1563(a) automatically requires the group to file as a single consolidated taxpayer
DThe corporation with the larger amount of qualifying property automatically receives the entire Section 179 dollar limitation for the group, while the other corporation receives none, unless the two corporations are also members of the same affiliated group under Section 1504
Correct answer: .
Section 179(d)(6) treats all component members of a controlled group as a single taxpayer for purposes of the dollar limitation on Section 179 expensing, and directs the Secretary to apportion that one limitation among the component members by regulation; the corporations may not each independently claim the full limitation on separate returns. Section 179(d)(7) defines 'controlled group' by cross-reference to Section 1563(a), but substitutes a more-than-50% ownership threshold for the statute's usual at-least-80% test, which is why common ownership exceeding 50% between Corporation M and Corporation N is enough to trigger this aggregation even though it would not create an 80%-test affiliated group. The response limiting the aggregation rule to partnerships and S corporations is wrong because Section 179(d)(6) applies to C corporations under common control exactly as described here. The response requiring a single consolidated return confuses the Section 179 aggregation rule, which only requires sharing one apportioned dollar limitation, with the separate and unrelated requirements for filing a consolidated corporate income tax return. The response giving the entire limitation to whichever corporation has more property, conditioned on Section 1504 affiliated-group status, misstates the law twice over: apportionment is a matter the group itself controls within the regulations, not an automatic all-or-nothing rule, and it does not depend on the unrelated 80%-vote-and-value affiliated-group test under Section 1504.
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 036/037easy
A sole proprietor who operates a single qualified trade or business is computing qualified business income (QBI) for Section 199A purposes for the 2025 tax year, a provision the One Big Beautiful Bill Act made permanent while keeping its 20% deduction rate. During 2025, the business recognizes long-term capital gain from selling a piece of equipment used in the business, in addition to its ordinary operating income. Under IRC Section 199A(c)(3)(B), how must this long-term capital gain be treated in computing QBI?
AIt is included in QBI at its full amount, because Section 199A(c)(3) defines QBI as all income effectively connected with the conduct of the qualified trade or business, without regard to its character for other income tax purposes
BIt is included in QBI, but only at 50% of the gain, mirroring the partial exclusion that applies to certain qualified small business stock gains under a different Code section
CIt is excluded from QBI entirely, because Section 199A(c)(3)(B) specifically carves out items of short-term and long-term capital gain and loss from the net amount of qualified items of income, gain, deduction, and loss used to compute QBI
DIt is excluded from QBI only if the taxpayer itemizes deductions for the 2025 tax year; sole proprietors who claim the standard deduction must include all capital gains from the business in QBI
Correct answer: .
Section 199A(c)(3)(B)(i) expressly excludes any item of short-term capital gain, short-term capital loss, long-term capital gain, or long-term capital loss from the qualified items of income, gain, deduction, and loss that make up QBI, regardless of whether the underlying asset was used in the taxpayer's trade or business; this keeps the Section 199A deduction focused on ordinary business profit rather than investment-like gains. The response including the gain at its full amount misreads 'effectively connected' income as covering every category of income the business generates, when the statute specifically strips out capital gains and losses by name. The response applying a 50% inclusion rate confuses this exclusion with the unrelated partial exclusion available for certain qualified small business stock gain, which has nothing to do with how QBI itself is computed. The response conditioning the exclusion on whether the taxpayer itemizes deductions invents a connection between Section 199A, which is available to taxpayers whether or not they itemize, and the itemized-deduction election, which governs an entirely separate part of the return.
Source: IRC Section 199A(c)(3)(B) (26 U.S.C. § 199A), as amended by the One Big Beautiful Bill Act of 2025
Tax: UK/US/UAE/KSA/EU · US Corporate & Business Tax · Card 037/037medium
An individual contributes appreciated real property to a partnership in exchange for a partnership interest. Fourteen months later, the partnership distributes cash to that individual that is not attributable to the individual's share of partnership operating profits for the period. Under IRC Section 707(a)(2)(B) and Treasury Regulation Section 1.707-3, how are these two transfers treated for federal income tax purposes?
AThe transfers are automatically disregarded as a disguised sale only if the individual cannot prove a specific independent business purpose for both the property contribution and the later cash distribution
BBecause the contribution and the distribution occur within two years of each other, Treasury Regulation Section 1.707-3(c)(1) presumes the transfers are a sale of the property to the partnership, in whole or in part, unless the facts and circumstances clearly establish that they do not constitute a sale
CThe transfers are presumed not to be a sale because fourteen months falls within the first half of the partnership's five-year holding period for disguised-sale testing, a safe harbor shorter transfers automatically satisfy
DThe transfers can never be treated as a sale under Section 707(a)(2)(B) because that provision applies only to transfers of money or marketable securities between a partnership and a partner, not to transfers of real property
Correct answer: .
Treasury Regulation Section 1.707-3(c)(1) provides that if a partner transfers property to a partnership and the partnership transfers money or other consideration to that partner within a two-year period, measured without regard to the order of the transfers, the transfers are presumed to be a sale, rebuttable only if the facts and circumstances clearly establish otherwise; the reverse presumption, that transfers are not a sale, applies only when they occur more than two years apart. Because the contribution and the cash distribution described here are fourteen months apart, the two-year presumption of a sale applies. The response requiring the individual to disprove an independent business purpose inverts the actual test, which asks whether the facts and circumstances show the transfers are not a disguised sale, not whether a business purpose can be separately proven. The response describing a five-year testing period invents a timeframe that does not appear in the regulation, which draws its line at two years, not five. The response limiting Section 707(a)(2)(B) to money or marketable securities is wrong because the disguised-sale rules apply to contributions of any property, including real property, paired with a later distribution of money or other consideration.
This topic covers U.S. federal business tax: how the entity a business chooses to operate through changes how its profits get taxed. A C corporation pays its own federal tax, a flat 21% on taxable income since the Tax Cuts and Jobs Act took effect in 2018, and any profit it later distributes to shareholders as a dividend is taxed again on their individual returns - the "double taxation" C corporations are known for. Pass-through entities avoid that second layer: partnerships, S corporations, and sole proprietorships generally pay no federal tax themselves, instead passing income, deductions, and credits through to their owners' own returns, taxed at each owner's personal rate.
Choosing an entity also changes which rules apply. S corporations face eligibility limits (generally no more than 100 shareholders, all individuals, estates, or certain trusts, and only one class of stock), while partnerships can allocate income and losses flexibly between partners under a written agreement, subject to rules that stop allocations from being used purely to dodge tax. A loss generated inside a pass-through entity doesn't automatically become deductible on the owner's own return, either: basis, at-risk, and passive-activity-loss limits each restrict how much of it can be used, and in a specific order.
The One Big Beautiful Bill Act, signed 4 July 2025, reshaped several business-tax provisions for the 2025 tax year onward, including bonus depreciation, Section 179 expensing, and the qualified small business stock exclusion; the QSBS exclusion tiers guide works through one of those changes with real numbers.