42 cards · Accounting: GAAP & IFRS · answer each one, then read the explanation. Your score tallies below. Looking for the full ASC & IFRS standards citation index? Read the explainer.
A vendor enters into a contract to transfer goods to a new customer whose credit history is unknown. Under IFRS 15's criteria for identifying a contract, the vendor must assess collectability of the consideration it expects to be entitled to. What threshold must this assessment meet, and how is that threshold usually understood in practice?
AIt must be assured beyond reasonable doubt, a near-certainty standard before any revenue can be recognized
BIt must be evidenced by a signed personal guarantee or third-party credit insurance covering the full contract price
CIt must be probable that the entity will collect the consideration it is entitled to, with IFRS defining 'probable' as more likely than not — a threshold just above 50%
DIt must meet a high threshold similar to 'virtually certain,' comparable to the roughly 75-80% likelihood some other accounting frameworks apply to the same word
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph 9(e) requires, as one of five conditions for an arrangement to qualify as a contract, that it is probable the entity will collect the consideration it is entitled to in exchange for the goods or services transferred, considering only the customer's ability and intention to pay. IFRS defines 'probable' as more likely than not, a threshold just above 50%, so the assessment does not require near-certainty. The option describing a near-certainty standard sets the bar far higher than the standard requires. The option requiring a signed guarantee or credit insurance describes one possible way to support a collectability conclusion, but that evidence is not itself the threshold the standard defines — collectability can equally be supported by other evidence such as the customer's payment history or the entity's customary business practices. The option describing a much higher, roughly 75-80% style threshold describes how a similarly worded criterion is applied under a different accounting framework, not how IFRS 15 defines the same word.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph 9(e) (collectability criterion for contract identification)
A construction company signs two separate written agreements with the same customer on the same day: one for site preparation and one for building a warehouse on the same site. The agreements were negotiated together as a single commercial package, and the price of the site-preparation agreement was set below its standalone selling price specifically because the customer also signed the warehouse agreement. Under IFRS 15, how should the company treat these two agreements?
ACombine the two contracts and account for them as a single contract, because they were negotiated as a package with a single commercial objective and the consideration in one depends on the price of the other
BAccount for them entirely separately, because IFRS 15 only permits combining contracts that are signed with different customers
CCombine them only if the customer requests combined invoicing, since invoicing practice is what determines whether contracts are treated as one arrangement
DAccount for them separately unless they are physically contained in a single signed document, since the number of signed documents determines whether contracts must be combined
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph 17 requires an entity to combine two or more contracts entered into at or near the same time with the same customer, and account for them as a single contract, if any one of three conditions is met: the contracts were negotiated as a package with a single commercial objective; the consideration in one contract depends on the price or performance of the other; or the goods or services promised form a single performance obligation. Here two of those conditions are present, so combination is required. The option requiring different customers has the rule backwards — combination applies specifically to contracts with the same customer (or related parties of that customer), not different ones. The option tying combination to invoicing practice is wrong because how the entity chooses to invoice is an administrative matter that plays no role in the paragraph 17 test. The option tying combination to the number of physically signed documents is wrong because IFRS 15 looks to the substance of how the arrangements were negotiated and priced, not to their legal or physical form.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph 17 (combination of contracts)
A software company grants a customer a two-year license to a proprietary anti-malware engine. The contract requires the company to keep actively developing and pushing threat-signature updates that the customer's license entitles it to receive throughout the term, and the customer's protection level rises and falls with those updates. Under IFRS 15's guidance on licences of intellectual property (paragraph B58), how should the company recognize the license revenue?
AAt the point in time the license key is delivered, because delivery of a license key always triggers point-in-time recognition regardless of the surrounding facts
BOver the two-year term, but only because the contract's duration happens to exceed one year
CAt the point in time the customer first actively uses the anti-malware engine, because usage rather than delivery is what triggers revenue for software licenses
DOver the two-year term, because the company's ongoing activities significantly affect the intellectual property the customer has rights to, and the customer is exposed to the positive or negative effects of those activities as they occur — the hallmark of a right to access
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph B58 sets out cumulative conditions under which a licence of intellectual property provides a right to access (recognized over time) rather than a right to use (recognized at a point in time): the contract requires, or the customer reasonably expects, that the entity will undertake activities that significantly affect the intellectual property to which the customer has rights; those activities expose the customer to positive or negative effects as they occur; and the activities do not themselves transfer a separate good or service. The scenario describes exactly this — ongoing signature updates that change the protection the customer receives — so revenue is recognized over the licence term. The option recognizing revenue on delivery of the license key ignores the B58 test entirely; delivery-triggered, point-in-time recognition is appropriate for a right-to-use licence that lacks these features, not automatically for every licence. The option tying the answer to contract duration is wrong because the over-time-versus-point-in-time distinction depends on the substance of the B58 criteria, not on how long the contract happens to run — a two-year right-to-use licence for static software with no required updates would still be recognized at a point in time. The option citing customer usage as the trigger invents a recognition basis IFRS 15 does not apply to licences; the standard's distinction turns on the access-versus-use test, not on when the customer happens to start using the software.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph B58 (licences providing a right to access intellectual property)
A supplier accepts equity shares of a private start-up customer as full payment for consulting services already rendered. The shares are illiquid and there is no active market from which to observe a price. Under IFRS 15, how should the supplier measure this non-cash consideration?
AAt the par or nominal value stated on the share certificates, since that is the only objectively documented amount available
BAt the fair value of the shares if that fair value can be reasonably estimated; if it cannot be reasonably estimated, indirectly by reference to the standalone selling price of the consulting services promised to the customer
CAt zero, because non-cash consideration is excluded from the transaction price under IFRS 15 until the shares are eventually sold for cash
DAt the amount the customer originally paid to have the shares issued, since that reflects the customer's own cost basis in the shares
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraphs 66-67 require non-cash consideration to be included in the transaction price and measured at fair value. If the entity cannot reasonably estimate the fair value of the non-cash consideration, it instead measures the consideration indirectly by reference to the standalone selling price of the goods or services promised to the customer. The option using par or nominal share value is wrong because a certificate's stated par value is an arbitrary legal figure disconnected from fair value and is not a measurement basis IFRS 15 recognizes. The option excluding non-cash consideration from the transaction price entirely is wrong because IFRS 15 explicitly requires such consideration to be included in the transaction price at the time control of the related goods or services transfers, not deferred until a later cash sale. The option using the customer's own historical cost of issuing the shares is wrong because that amount reflects the customer's cost basis, not the fair value (or standalone-selling-price proxy) of what the supplier actually received in exchange for its services.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs 66-67 (non-cash consideration)
A contractor has performed enough work under a long-term contract to be entitled to bill the customer only once a milestone inspection is passed, which has not yet occurred. The same contractor has separately received an advance payment from a different customer for services it has not yet performed. Under IFRS 15, how should the contractor classify each amount on its balance sheet?
ABoth amounts are receivables, since the contractor has already performed work or already been paid, and IFRS 15 does not otherwise distinguish these balance-sheet items
BThe unbilled amount is a contract liability and the advance payment is a contract asset, since a contractor only recognizes an obligation once it has physically completed the underlying work
CThe unbilled amount is a contract asset, because the contractor's right to consideration is conditional on something other than the passage of time (the inspection); the advance payment is a contract liability, because the contractor now owes the customer a performance obligation
DBoth amounts should be presented as revenue immediately, because IFRS 15 requires revenue recognition as soon as either cash changes hands or a milestone is defined in the contract
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraphs 105-108 distinguish a contract asset — an entity's right to consideration in exchange for goods or services already transferred, when that right is conditional on something other than the passage of time — from an unconditional right to consideration, which is a receivable, and from a contract liability — an entity's obligation to transfer goods or services to a customer for which the entity has already received (or is due) consideration. The unbilled amount here depends on passing an inspection, a condition other than time, so it is a contract asset; the advance payment creates an obligation to perform, so it is a contract liability. The option calling both amounts receivables is wrong because a receivable requires an unconditional right to payment, which the milestone-dependent amount does not have. The option that swaps the two classifications is wrong on both counts: it mislabels the inspection-conditional amount as an obligation and the prepayment as an asset, the reverse of paragraphs 105-108. The option requiring immediate revenue recognition on both amounts is wrong because recognizing revenue depends on satisfying performance obligations under the contract's five-step model, not merely on cash receipt or the existence of a milestone.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs 105, 107-108 (contract assets, receivables and contract liabilities)
A retailer sells products to customers with a 30-day full-refund return right. Based on extensive historical experience, the retailer estimates that 8% of units sold in a batch will be returned. Under IFRS 15's guidance on rights of return, how should the retailer account for this batch of sales at the point of sale?
ARecognize revenue for the consideration it expects to be entitled to after excluding the estimated returns, recognize a refund liability for the amount expected to be refunded, and recognize an asset (with a corresponding adjustment to cost of sales) for its right to recover the returned products
BRecognize revenue for 100% of the sales price with no adjustment for expected returns, because a right of return is a post-sale service obligation that IFRS 15 accounts for entirely separately from revenue
CDefer all revenue recognition on the entire batch of sales until the 30-day return window has fully expired for every unit sold
DRecognize revenue net of the full historical return rate for every unit sold, but recognize no separate refund liability, since IFRS 15 treats revenue as already stated net once an estimate is applied
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraphs B20-B22 require a seller with a right-of-return obligation to recognize revenue only for the consideration it expects to be entitled to after excluding expected returns (treating the return right as a form of variable consideration subject to the constraint), to recognize a refund liability for the amount it expects to refund, and to recognize an asset (with a corresponding adjustment to cost of sales) representing its right to recover the products expected to be returned. The option recognizing the full sales price with no return adjustment is wrong because a right of return is not a separate service obligation under IFRS 15 — it directly affects how much transaction price the entity is entitled to keep. The option deferring all revenue until the window closes is far more conservative than the standard requires; IFRS 15 permits recognizing revenue immediately once expected returns can be reasonably estimated, which the retailer's extensive historical data supports. The option that nets the return rate into revenue but omits a refund liability is wrong because the model requires the refund obligation and the asset for recovered products to be recognized separately from the net revenue figure, not folded away once an estimate is applied.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs B20-B22 (rights of return)
A logistics company enters into a contract to use a specific truck, identified by registration plate in the contract, for two years. The supplier has no right to substitute the truck for a different one, and throughout the period the logistics company decides how, when, and for what cargo the truck is used, while also obtaining substantially all of the truck's economic benefits. Under IFRS 16, how should the logistics company classify this contract?
AAs a service contract, because the supplier retains legal title to the truck throughout the period
BAs a lease only if the contract's title explicitly uses the word 'lease' or 'rental'
CAs neither a lease nor a service contract, since IFRS 16 only applies to contracts for real estate and heavy equipment above a materiality threshold
DAs a lease, because the contract conveys the right to control the use of an identified asset for a period of time in exchange for consideration — the truck is identified, substitution rights are absent, and the customer both directs its use and obtains substantially all of its economic benefits
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraphs 9-11 define a lease as a contract that conveys the right to control the use of an identified asset for a period of time in exchange for consideration, which requires an identified asset (here the specific truck, with no supplier substitution right) and control resting with the customer, evidenced by the customer directing how and for what purpose the asset is used and obtaining substantially all of the economic benefits from that use. All of these features are present, so the arrangement is a lease. The option focused on legal title is wrong because IFRS 16's test turns on control of use, not on who holds legal title — a lessor commonly retains title throughout a lease term. The option requiring the word 'lease' or 'rental' in the contract's title is wrong because IFRS 16 looks to the substance of the arrangement rather than its label. The option citing a real-estate-and-equipment-only scope with a materiality threshold is wrong because the core lease definition applies broadly to identified assets of any type; IFRS 16 does provide separate, narrower recognition exemptions for short-term leases and low-value assets, but those are optional practical expedients, not a blanket restriction on which asset types or contracts can meet the definition of a lease in the first place.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraphs 9-11 (definition of a lease)
A company leases a set of desktop computers valued at roughly $800 each when new, under a three-year lease, and separately leases an office building for six months with no purchase option and no expectation of renewal. Under IFRS 16's recognition exemptions for lessees, how should the company treat each lease?
ANeither lease qualifies for an exemption, because IFRS 16 requires the value and the duration of a lease to both independently fall below the relevant thresholds before any single exemption can apply
BThe computers may qualify for the low-value asset exemption, which is assessed on an absolute basis regardless of lease term (the IASB's basis for conclusions describes low-value assets, such as small IT equipment, as around USD 5,000 or less when new); the building lease may separately qualify for the short-term lease exemption because its term is 12 months or less and it contains no purchase option
COnly the building lease can ever qualify for an exemption, because IFRS 16's low-value asset exemption is restricted to intangible assets and cannot apply to any physical equipment
DBoth leases must be capitalized regardless of value or term, because IFRS 16 abolished every lessee recognition exemption that had existed under the previous leases standard
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraphs 5-8 provide two independent, optional recognition exemptions for lessees: short-term leases (a lease term of 12 months or less at commencement, with no purchase option) and leases of low-value assets. The low-value asset exemption is assessed on an absolute basis by reference to the value of the underlying asset when new, regardless of the lease term or the size of the lessee; the IASB's basis for conclusions describes the Board having in mind assets of around USD 5,000 or less when new, citing examples such as small IT equipment, tablets, personal computers and small items of office furniture. Because these are two separate exemptions, the computers can qualify under the low-value test on their own, and the building lease can independently qualify under the short-term test. The option requiring both conditions to hold at once is wrong because it treats two independent exemptions as if they were a single combined test. The option restricting the low-value exemption to intangible assets is wrong because the Board's own examples are physical items such as computers and furniture. The option claiming IFRS 16 abolished all lessee exemptions is wrong because these two practical expedients were retained specifically to reduce the burden of capitalizing immaterial or short-lived leases.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraphs 5-8 (recognition exemptions) and Basis for Conclusions paragraph BC100 (low-value assets)
An equipment leasing company (the lessor) leases identical forklifts to two different customers (the lessees) under separate lease contracts. Under IFRS 16, how do the accounting models applied by the lessor and by each lessee to these leases compare?
AThe lessor and each lessee apply the identical single on-balance-sheet model, because IFRS 16 eliminated the finance-versus-operating lease distinction for every party to a lease
BEach lessee classifies its lease as finance or operating based on the transfer of risks and rewards, while the lessor recognizes a single right-of-use asset and lease liability for every contract it enters into
CEach lessee applies a single lessee accounting model, recognizing a right-of-use asset and a lease liability for substantially all of its leases (subject to limited exemptions), while the lessor still classifies each lease as either a finance lease or an operating lease based on the transfer of risks and rewards of ownership
DNeither party recognizes anything on its balance sheet at lease commencement; both simply expense the lease payments as incurred throughout the lease term
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph 22 requires a lessee to apply a single accounting model, recognizing a right-of-use asset and a lease liability for substantially all of its leases, subject only to the short-term and low-value recognition exemptions; the old finance-versus-operating distinction was removed for lessees. IFRS 16 paragraphs 61-66, however, retain the previous dual classification approach for lessors, who must still classify each lease as a finance lease or an operating lease based on the extent to which the lease transfers the risks and rewards incidental to ownership of the underlying asset. So the lessor's model was left substantively unchanged even though the lessee's model changed fundamentally. The option claiming both parties now apply the identical single model is wrong because only lessees were moved to the single on-balance-sheet model; lessors kept the dual classification test. The option that swaps the two roles is wrong because it describes lessees as still using risk-and-reward classification and lessors as using the single right-of-use model, the reverse of what IFRS 16 actually requires. The option claiming neither party recognizes anything at commencement is wrong because lessees recognize a right-of-use asset and lease liability up front, and lessors recognize either a net investment in the lease (finance lease) or continue reporting the underlying asset (operating lease).
At commencement of a lease, a lessee must discount the future lease payments to measure its lease liability. Under IFRS 16, which discount rate should the lessee use?
AThe interest rate implicit in the lease, if that rate can be readily determined; otherwise, the lessee's incremental borrowing rate
BThe lessee's weighted-average cost of capital, applied consistently to every lease regardless of whether the implicit rate can be determined
CThe risk-free government bond rate matching the lease term, since IFRS 16 requires a rate free of the lessee's own credit risk
DWhichever rate produces the lowest initial lease liability, since IFRS 16 gives the lessee discretion to select the discount rate for balance-sheet purposes
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph 26 requires a lessee to discount lease payments using the interest rate implicit in the lease if that rate can be readily determined; if it cannot, the lessee uses its incremental borrowing rate instead. The option specifying weighted-average cost of capital is wrong because IFRS 16 does not reference a general corporate cost-of-capital figure at all — it specifies only the two rates above. The option specifying a risk-free government bond rate is wrong because the incremental borrowing rate is explicitly not risk-free: it is defined as the rate the lessee would have to pay to borrow, over a similar term and with similar security, the funds necessary to obtain an asset of similar value, so it reflects the lessee's own credit standing and the transaction's specific terms. The option allowing the lessee to pick whichever rate minimizes the liability is wrong because IFRS 16 does not grant that discretion; using an artificially low rate to shrink the reported liability would undermine faithful representation, which the standard's hierarchy of rates is specifically designed to prevent.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraph 26 and Appendix A (definition of the lessee's incremental borrowing rate)
A lessee's lease payments are structured so that annual rent increases each year in line with a published consumer price index. Two years into the lease, the index rises significantly, increasing the cash rent due for the following year. Under IFRS 16, how should the lessee account for this change?
ARecognize the additional rent as an expense in profit or loss only in the year it is actually paid, with no adjustment to the lease liability or the right-of-use asset
BTreat the change as a lease modification, which requires the lessee to remeasure the lease using a newly revised discount rate as of the date the index changes
CIgnore the change entirely for accounting purposes, because payments linked to a published index are treated as fully variable, off-balance-sheet payments under IFRS 16 in the same way as payments linked to sales or usage
DRemeasure the lease liability to reflect the revised future lease payments, discounted using the discount rate applied at lease commencement (left unchanged), with the corresponding adjustment made to the right-of-use asset
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraphs 27(b) and 42(b) require variable lease payments that depend on an index or a rate to be included in the initial measurement of lease payments using the index or rate at commencement, and then remeasured when there is a change in the future lease payments resulting from a change in that index or rate (typically when the adjustment to the cash payments takes effect). This remeasurement uses the discount rate applied at commencement, left unchanged, because a change in an index or rate is not a lease modification, and the offsetting entry adjusts the right-of-use asset rather than profit or loss. The option expensing the extra rent as incurred with no balance-sheet adjustment is wrong because index-linked variable payments are explicitly brought into the lease liability, unlike payments that are truly variable with no index or rate basis (for example, payments based purely on sales or usage), which are expensed as incurred and never enter the liability. The option treating the change as a lease modification requiring a revised discount rate is wrong because IFRS 16 distinguishes remeasurement triggered by an index or rate change (unchanged discount rate) from an actual lease modification, such as a change in the scope or consideration of the lease that was not part of its original terms (which can require a revised discount rate). The option ignoring the change entirely because it is 'fully variable' conflates index/rate-linked payments, which are on-balance-sheet and subject to remeasurement, with genuinely usage- or sales-based variable payments, which are the ones IFRS 16 keeps off the lease liability.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraphs 27(b) and 42(b) (variable lease payments that depend on an index or a rate)
A company transfers legal title of a warehouse to a bank and simultaneously leases the same warehouse back for use over the next 15 years. Applying IFRS 15's control-transfer criteria, the company determines that the bank has not obtained control of the warehouse — for example, the company retains an option to repurchase the warehouse at a price expected to be below its fair value at the option date. Under IFRS 16, how should the company (seller-lessee) and the bank (buyer-lessor) account for the proceeds exchanged?
AThe company derecognizes the warehouse and recognizes a right-of-use asset for the leaseback, exactly as it would if the transfer had qualified as a sale under IFRS 15
BBecause the transfer does not satisfy IFRS 15's requirements to be accounted for as a sale, the company continues to recognize the warehouse and instead recognizes a financial liability equal to the proceeds received, while the bank recognizes a financial asset for the same amount
CThe company recognizes a gain or loss immediately for the full difference between the warehouse's carrying amount and the proceeds received, because IFRS 16 requires immediate gain or loss recognition on every sale-and-leaseback transaction
DThe transaction falls entirely outside the scope of IFRS 16 and should instead be accounted for solely under IAS 16 as a revaluation of property, plant and equipment
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraphs 99-103 require an entity to first apply IFRS 15's requirements to determine whether the transfer of an asset in a sale-and-leaseback transaction is a sale. When it is not — as here, because the repurchase option indicates the bank has not obtained control of the warehouse — the seller-lessee continues to recognize the transferred asset and instead recognizes a financial liability equal to the proceeds received, accounted for applying IFRS 9; the buyer-lessor recognizes a financial asset for the same amount rather than the underlying property. The option describing derecognition and a right-of-use asset is wrong because that treatment applies only when the transfer does qualify as a sale under IFRS 15, which is not the case in this scenario. The option requiring immediate recognition of the full gain or loss is wrong because that outcome is not a general rule for every sale-and-leaseback transaction — even when a transfer does qualify as a sale, gain or loss is limited to the portion of the asset's rights transferred to the buyer-lessor rather than recognized in full, and here no sale has occurred at all, so no such gain or loss arises. The option placing the transaction outside IFRS 16's scope is wrong because sale-and-leaseback transactions, including those that fail the IFRS 15 sale test, are explicitly addressed within IFRS 16 itself rather than being left to IAS 16's revaluation model.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraphs 99-103 (sale and leaseback transactions)
A company enters into a single contract to deliver three distinct goods to a customer. It regularly sells two of the goods separately and has directly observable standalone selling prices for both. The third good is being offered for the first time: the company has never sold it on a standalone basis and has not yet set a price for it, so no directly observable or comparable market evidence of its selling price exists. IFRS 15 identifies the adjusted market assessment approach, the expected cost plus a margin approach, and the residual approach as suitable methods for estimating a standalone selling price that is not directly observable. Under IFRS 15 paragraph 79, when is the residual approach specifically available?
AWhenever the entity finds it administratively simpler than gathering observable market data or cost information for the good
BOnly when the good is sold exclusively as part of bundled contracts and is never, under any circumstance, sold on a standalone basis to any customer
COnly when the good's selling price is highly variable because the entity sells it to different customers, at or near the same time, for a broad range of amounts with no discernible representative price, or when the entity has not yet established a price for the good and has never sold it on a standalone basis, making the price uncertain
DOnly when the customer explicitly requests that the price be calculated as a residual amount rather than through a market-based or cost-based method
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph 79 restricts the residual approach to situations where a good or service's standalone selling price is highly variable — sold to different customers, at or near the same time, for a broad range of amounts from which no representative price is discernible — or uncertain, meaning the entity has not yet established a price for the good and has never sold it on a standalone basis, exactly the circumstances described. The option treating the residual approach as available whenever it is merely more convenient is wrong because paragraph 79 sets out specific eligibility criteria rather than leaving the choice of method to administrative preference. The option restricting the approach to goods that are never sold standalone under any circumstance is wrong because the uncertain-price criterion only requires that the good has not yet been sold standalone as of the current estimate, not that standalone sales be permanently impossible in the future. The option conditioning use of the approach on a customer's request is wrong because IFRS 15 makes the residual approach a matter of the entity's own accounting policy judgment against the standard's criteria, not something triggered by customer preference.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph 79 (estimating standalone selling price)
A software company builds custom accounting software for a client under a contract with no alternative use to the company, because the software is tailored specifically to the client's systems, and which entitles the company to invoice and collect payment for work performed to date if the client cancels the contract for reasons other than the company's own non-performance. No other transfer-of-control indicator applies. Under IFRS 15, should the company recognize the related revenue over time or at a point in time, and why?
AOver time, because the asset created has no alternative use to the company and the company has an enforceable right to payment for performance completed to date, satisfying one of the three criteria in paragraph 35 for recognizing revenue over time
BAt a point in time, because revenue can only be recognized over time when the customer simultaneously receives and consumes the benefits of the company's performance as the company performs, and no other criterion in paragraph 35 can independently support over-time recognition
CAt a point in time, because custom software is a good rather than a service, and IFRS 15 always recognizes revenue for the transfer of goods only when physical or constructive delivery occurs
DOver time, because the contract exists and the company expects to be paid, which alone is sufficient under IFRS 15 to recognize revenue as costs are incurred regardless of whether control of anything has transferred to the customer
Correct answer: .
Under IFRS 15 paragraph 35, revenue is recognized over time if any one of three criteria is met, and the enforceable-right-to-payment criterion is satisfied here: the software has no alternative use to the company because it is built specifically for this client, and the company can require payment for work performed to date if the client cancels for reasons unrelated to the company's own non-performance. The option requiring the simultaneous-receipt-and-consumption criterion to be met is wrong because paragraph 35's three criteria are alternatives — satisfying any single one is sufficient, so the absence of that particular criterion does not prevent over-time recognition here. The option treating custom software as automatically a good recognized only on delivery is wrong because IFRS 15 does not classify promises as goods or services for recognition-timing purposes based on their physical or digital nature; the paragraph 35 criteria apply regardless of that distinction. The option treating the mere existence of a contract and an expectation of payment as sufficient is wrong because revenue recognition under IFRS 15 depends on the transfer of control assessed against paragraph 35's specific criteria, not on the existence of a contract alone.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph 35 (performance obligations satisfied over time)
An online marketplace lists third-party sellers' products, processes customer payments, and arranges shipping, but the marketplace never takes title to the products, cannot direct that the products be transferred to anyone other than the customer who ordered them, and bears no inventory risk if a product goes unsold. Under IFRS 15's control-based principal-versus-agent guidance, how should the marketplace account for revenue from these transactions?
AAs a principal, recognizing the gross transaction price as revenue and the amount remitted to the seller as cost of sales, because it processes the payment and controls the customer relationship
BAs an agent, recognizing revenue only for the commission or fee it retains for arranging the sale, because it does not control the specified good before it is transferred to the customer
CAs an agent, but still recognizing the gross transaction price as revenue, because IFRS 15 permits gross revenue reporting for any party that facilitates a transaction between two other parties
DAs a principal, because it bears credit risk on the customer's payment, and credit risk is IFRS 15's sole determinative indicator of control for the principal-versus-agent assessment
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph B35 identifies control of the specified good or service before it is transferred to the customer as the determining factor for principal status; the marketplace never takes title, cannot redirect the products to anyone but the ordering customer, and bears no inventory risk, so it does not control the products before transfer and is an agent, recognizing only its commission. The option treating processing payments and controlling the customer relationship as making the marketplace a principal is wrong because those facts are not, by themselves, indicators of control over the specified good under paragraph B35; a party can process payment and own the customer relationship while still acting as an agent. The option allowing an agent to nonetheless recognize gross revenue is wrong because IFRS 15 requires an agent to recognize revenue in the amount of the fee or commission it retains, not the gross transaction price. The option elevating credit risk to the sole determinative indicator is wrong because IFRS 15's control assessment weighs multiple indicators together, including who is responsible for fulfilling the promise and who has discretion over pricing, rather than resting on credit risk alone.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs B34-B36 (principal versus agent considerations)
A manufacturer sells a machine with two warranties attached: one promises that the machine will operate as specified for one year and simply obliges the manufacturer to repair or replace defective parts existing at the time of sale; the other, purchased separately by the customer for an additional fee, provides routine maintenance visits and covers accidental damage regardless of any manufacturing defect. Under IFRS 15's guidance on warranties in paragraphs B28-B33, how should the manufacturer account for each warranty?
ABoth warranties are assurance-type warranties accounted for under IAS 37, because both were offered in connection with the sale of the same machine and neither can be purchased or evaluated independently of the other
BBoth warranties are service-type warranties accounted for as separate performance obligations under IFRS 15, because any warranty priced or described separately from the base product automatically qualifies as a distinct service
CThe first warranty is a service-type warranty because it is included in the sale price, and the second is an assurance-type warranty because it merely extends the coverage period of the first
DThe first warranty is an assurance-type warranty accounted for under IAS 37 because it only confirms the machine meets agreed specifications; the second is a service-type warranty accounted for as a separate performance obligation under IFRS 15 because it provides a service beyond fixing defects existing at the time of sale
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraphs B28-B33 distinguish an assurance-type warranty, which merely promises that a product meets agreed specifications and is accounted for under IAS 37, from a service-type warranty, which provides the customer with a service beyond fixing defects existing at the time of sale and is accounted for as a separate performance obligation under IFRS 15; the first warranty here only confirms specification compliance, while the second, purchased separately and covering maintenance and accidental damage regardless of any manufacturing defect, clearly provides an additional service. The option classifying both as assurance-type is wrong because being offered alongside the same product does not, by itself, determine warranty type; the substance of what each warranty promises is what matters. The option classifying both as service-type merely because one is priced separately is wrong because separate pricing is only one indicator, and it does not apply to the first warranty here, which is bundled into the base sale and promises nothing beyond defect-free performance. The option swapping the two classifications is wrong because it inverts the substance of each warranty: the bundled, defects-only promise is the assurance-type warranty, and the separately purchased, broader-coverage promise is the service-type warranty.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs B28-B33 (warranties)
A company pays its sales staff a commission only when they successfully close a new customer contract; the commission would not have been incurred if the contract had not been obtained. The related contracts are expected to be fulfilled over eighteen months. Under IFRS 15 paragraphs 91-94, how should the company account for this commission?
ARecognize the commission as an asset, the incremental cost of obtaining the contract, and amortize it on a systematic basis consistent with the transfer of the goods or services to which it relates, because the amortization period exceeds the twelve-month practical expedient threshold in paragraph 94
BExpense the commission immediately when paid, because paragraph 94's practical expedient allows immediate expensing whenever a cost is directly linked to a single identifiable contract, regardless of that contract's duration
CRecognize the commission as an asset and amortize it over the sales staff's average employment tenure with the company, because the cost relates to their compensation rather than to any specific customer contract
DExpense the commission immediately when paid, because sales commissions are selling costs by nature and IFRS 15 excludes all costs incurred in obtaining a contract from capitalization regardless of the contract's expected duration
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraphs 91-94 require an entity to capitalize the incremental costs of obtaining a contract, costs it would not have incurred if the contract had not been obtained, such as a success-based sales commission, and amortize them on a systematic basis consistent with the transfer of the related goods or services, unless paragraph 94's practical expedient applies, which permits immediate expensing only when the resulting asset's amortization period would be twelve months or less; here the contracts are fulfilled over eighteen months, so the expedient is unavailable and capitalization is required. The option applying the practical expedient regardless of contract duration is wrong because paragraph 94 conditions the expedient specifically on a one-year-or-less amortization period, not merely on the cost being linked to an identifiable contract. The option amortizing over the sales staff's employment tenure is wrong because the capitalized asset must be amortized consistently with the transfer of the goods or services under the specific contract that gave rise to the cost, not over an unrelated period tied to the employee's tenure. The option excluding all contract-obtaining costs from capitalization is wrong because paragraphs 91-94 specifically require capitalization of incremental costs of obtaining a contract as the general rule, with immediate expensing being the narrow exception.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs 91-94 (costs to obtain a contract)
A supplier sells goods to a retailer and, under a separate agreement, pays the retailer a cash rebate for shelf placement that is not in exchange for any distinct good or service the retailer transfers to the supplier. Under IFRS 15 paragraph 70, how should the supplier account for this rebate?
AAs a marketing or selling expense, separate from revenue, because the rebate relates to promotional shelf placement rather than to the goods themselves
BAs a reduction of the transaction price for the goods sold to the retailer, and therefore of revenue, recognized no earlier than when the supplier recognizes revenue for the related goods
CAs a reduction of the transaction price only if the retailer is also the end consumer of the goods, otherwise the rebate has no effect on the supplier's revenue
DAs additional revenue-generating consideration received from the retailer, because payments between a supplier and a customer under a separate agreement are outside the scope of IFRS 15's transaction-price guidance
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph 70 requires consideration payable to a customer that is not in exchange for a distinct good or service to be accounted for as a reduction of the transaction price, and therefore of revenue, recognized no earlier than the later of when the related revenue is recognized or when the payment is made or promised; the shelf-placement rebate here is not exchanged for any distinct good or service the retailer provides to the supplier, so it reduces the supplier's revenue rather than being reported separately. The option treating the rebate as a marketing expense separate from revenue is wrong because paragraph 70 specifically requires this type of payment to reduce revenue rather than be presented as an operating expense. The option conditioning the revenue reduction on the retailer being the end consumer is wrong because paragraph 70's requirement applies regardless of whether the immediate customer resells the goods further down the distribution chain. The option treating the rebate as additional revenue-generating consideration is wrong because payments made by a supplier to its customer under a related agreement fall squarely within the transaction-price guidance in IFRS 15, not outside its scope.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph 70 (consideration payable to a customer)
A lessee's original assessment of a ten-year lease with a five-year extension option concluded it was not reasonably certain to exercise the extension, so the lease term used to measure the lease liability was ten years. Three years into the lease, the lessee opens a large new production line in the leased building at significant cost, making it economically compelling to keep using the space well beyond the original ten years. Under IFRS 16 paragraphs 20-21, what should the lessee do?
ATake no action, because IFRS 16 only permits reassessment of the lease term at the original commencement date, never afterward
BReassess the lease term only at the next annual reporting date that coincides with the lease's original inception anniversary, since IFRS 16 mandates reassessment strictly on a fixed annual cycle rather than upon a triggering event
CReassess whether it is now reasonably certain to exercise the extension option, because the new production line is a significant event within the lessee's control that affects whether exercising the option is reasonably certain, and revise the lease term and remeasure the lease liability if the conclusion changes
DTreat the new production line as a lease modification and account for the extension option as if the lessee and lessor had renegotiated a brand-new lease contract, even though the original contract's extension option and its terms are unchanged
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraphs 20-21 require a lessee to reassess whether it is reasonably certain to exercise an extension option when a significant event or significant change in circumstances occurs that is within the lessee's control and affects that assessment; investing heavily in a new production line that depends on continued occupancy of the space is exactly such an event, so the lessee must reassess and, if its conclusion changes, revise the lease term and remeasure the lease liability accordingly. The option barring any reassessment after commencement is wrong because paragraphs 20-21 exist specifically to require reassessment during the lease term when qualifying triggers occur, not only at inception. The option limiting reassessment to a fixed annual cycle tied to the lease's inception anniversary is wrong because IFRS 16 ties reassessment to the occurrence of a qualifying triggering event, not to a calendar schedule. The option treating the situation as a lease modification requiring a renegotiated contract is wrong because nothing about the original contract's extension option or its terms has changed; modification accounting applies to a change in the scope or consideration of a lease agreed between lessor and lessee, not to a lessee's internal reassessment of its own intentions under an unchanged contract.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraphs 20-21 (reassessment of lease term)
At the commencement of a lease, a lessee incurs initial direct costs to negotiate the lease, makes a lease payment before commencement, receives a cash incentive from the lessor, and estimates a legal obligation to dismantle leasehold improvements and restore the leased space at the end of the lease. Under IFRS 16 paragraph 24, which of these amounts form part of the initial cost of the right-of-use asset?
AOnly the initial measurement of the lease liability; initial direct costs, pre-commencement payments, incentives, and restoration cost estimates are recognized separately as period expenses or provisions rather than added to the right-of-use asset
BOnly the initial direct costs and the estimated dismantling and restoration costs; lease payments made before commencement and lease incentives received are excluded from the right-of-use asset because they relate to the lease liability rather than the asset
COnly the pre-commencement lease payment and the lease incentive received, netted against each other; initial direct costs and restoration cost estimates are always expensed as incurred under IFRS 16
DAll of them: the initial measurement of the lease liability, the pre-commencement lease payment, the initial direct costs, and the estimated dismantling and restoration costs are all included, with the lease incentive received deducted from the total
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph 24 defines the cost of the right-of-use asset as the sum of the initial measurement of the lease liability, any lease payments made at or before commencement (less lease incentives received), any initial direct costs incurred by the lessee, and an estimate of costs to dismantle, remove, or restore the underlying asset or site under the lease's terms; every item described here therefore forms part of the asset's initial cost, with the incentive reducing rather than adding to that total. The option limiting the asset to only the lease liability's initial measurement is wrong because paragraph 24 explicitly adds the other listed components rather than treating them as separate expenses or provisions unrelated to the asset. The option excluding pre-commencement payments and incentives is wrong because paragraph 24 specifically includes payments made before commencement, net of incentives received, within the right-of-use asset's cost. The option limiting the asset to only the netted payment and incentive is wrong because it omits the lease liability's initial measurement and the initial direct costs, both of which paragraph 24 requires to be included, and because initial direct costs are added to, not expensed against, the asset.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraph 24 (initial measurement of the right-of-use asset)
A lessor leases specialized manufacturing equipment to a lessee under a contract whose term covers most of the equipment's remaining economic life, and the present value of the lease payments amounts to substantially all of the equipment's fair value at inception, although legal title never transfers and there is no purchase option. Under IFRS 16 paragraphs 61-62, how should the lessor classify this lease?
AAs an operating lease, because a finance lease under IFRS 16 requires that legal title to the underlying asset transfer to the lessee, or that the lessee hold a purchase option, and neither condition is present here
BAs a finance lease, because the combination of a lease term covering a major part of the asset's economic life and lease payments whose present value amounts to substantially all of the asset's fair value indicates that substantially all the risks and rewards incidental to ownership have transferred to the lessee, even though legal title and a purchase option are absent
CAs an operating lease, because IFRS 16 requires lessors to classify every lease of equipment, as opposed to real estate, as an operating lease regardless of the lease term or payment structure
DAs a finance lease only if the lessee also applies the recognition and measurement exemptions available to lessees, because IFRS 16 requires a lessor's classification to mirror whichever accounting treatment the lessee elects
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraphs 61-62 classify a lease as a finance lease when it transfers substantially all the risks and rewards incidental to ownership to the lessee, and list indicators, including a lease term covering a major part of the underlying asset's economic life and a present value of lease payments amounting to substantially all of its fair value, that support this conclusion even without a transfer of legal title or a purchase option; both indicators are present here, so the lease is a finance lease. The option requiring title transfer or a purchase option for finance-lease classification is wrong because paragraphs 61-62 present title transfer and purchase options as indicators among several, not as mandatory conditions; a lease can qualify as a finance lease through other indicators alone. The option mandating operating-lease classification for all equipment leases is wrong because IFRS 16's lessor classification test turns on the transfer of risks and rewards, not on the category of underlying asset being leased. The option tying lessor classification to whichever exemption the lessee elects is wrong because IFRS 16 requires lessors to classify leases based on their own risks-and-rewards assessment, independent of any recognition exemption the lessee may apply under the lessee accounting model.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraphs 61-62 (lessor classification of leases)
A lessee currently leases two floors of an office building. Partway through the lease term, the lessee and lessor agree to a modification that removes the lessee's right to use one of the two floors, with a proportionate reduction in future lease payments, while leaving all other terms unchanged. Under IFRS 16 paragraphs 44-46, how should the lessee account for this modification?
ABecause the modification changes the consideration and reduces the lessee's rights, the lessee accounts for it as a separate new lease for the remaining floor while continuing to recognize the original right-of-use asset and lease liability for the floor no longer used
BThe lessee makes no adjustment to the right-of-use asset and instead recognizes the entire reduction in future payments directly in profit or loss as a one-time gain, since the underlying lease liability is not affected by a decrease in scope
CBecause the modification decreases the scope of the lease rather than adding a new underlying asset, the lessee remeasures the lease liability using a revised discount rate, decreases the carrying amount of the right-of-use asset to reflect the partial termination, and recognizes any resulting gain or loss in profit or loss
DThe lessee treats the modification as a change in an index or rate affecting future lease payments and remeasures only the lease liability, using the original discount rate, without any adjustment to the right-of-use asset
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph 44 requires a lease modification to be treated as a separate lease only when it increases the scope of the lease by adding a right to use additional underlying assets at a commensurate standalone price; because this modification removes the right to use one floor rather than adding anything, it is not a separate lease, and paragraph 46 instead requires the lessee to remeasure the lease liability with a revised discount rate, decrease the right-of-use asset to reflect the partial termination, and recognize any resulting gain or loss in profit or loss. The option treating a scope reduction as giving rise to a new separate lease is wrong because paragraph 44's separate-lease treatment applies only to scope increases, not decreases. The option recognizing the full payment reduction as a profit-or-loss gain without adjusting the right-of-use asset is wrong because paragraph 46 specifically requires the carrying amount of the right-of-use asset to be decreased in proportion to the partial termination before any gain or loss is recognized. The option using the original discount rate and treating this as an index-driven remeasurement is wrong because a lease modification requires a revised discount rate determined at the effective date of the modification, unlike routine remeasurements triggered solely by changes in an index or rate.
A crane manufacturer sells a customized crane to a customer and delivers it immediately, transferring control at delivery. Under the contract, the customer is not required to pay the agreed price until 30 months after delivery, a term the customer specifically requested to arrange its own financing. Under IFRS 15 paragraphs 60-65, how should the manufacturer account for the difference between the amount ultimately collectible and the price a cash-paying customer would have paid at delivery?
AThe manufacturer recognizes revenue at delivery equal to the cash selling price (the present value of the amount ultimately collectible), and separately accretes the discount on the receivable as interest income over the 30 months
BBecause the deferral exceeds one year, IFRS 15 prohibits any revenue recognition until the customer actually pays, so the manufacturer recognizes both the sale and any financing effect only when cash is received in 30 months
CBecause payment terms longer than 12 months automatically qualify for the practical expedient in paragraph 63, the manufacturer recognizes the full nominal contract price as revenue at delivery with no separate financing component
DBecause the financing arrangement benefits the customer, the manufacturer treats the entire time-value difference as a reduction of revenue and recognizes it as interest expense paid to the customer over the 30 months
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraphs 60-65 require an entity to adjust the promised consideration for the effects of a significant financing component whenever the timing of payments agreed by the parties provides the customer or the entity with a significant benefit of financing. Paragraph 63's practical expedient only relieves an entity from making this adjustment when the period between transfer of the good and payment is expected, at contract inception, to be one year or less; here the deferral is 30 months, so the expedient does not apply. The manufacturer therefore recognizes revenue at delivery equal to the cash selling price -- what a customer would pay in cash at the time of transfer -- and separately accretes the discount on the outstanding receivable as interest income over the deferral period, distinct from revenue. The option denying any revenue recognition until cash is received applies pure cash-basis accounting, which IFRS 15 does not use; control transfers, and revenue is recognized, at delivery regardless of when cash arrives. The option assuming the expedient applies automatically to any deferral over 12 months has the threshold backwards: the expedient is available only when the period is one year or less, not when it exceeds one year, so a 30-month deferral falls outside it and requires the adjustment. The option treating the difference as interest expense paid to the customer misidentifies the direction of the financing: because the customer pays 30 months after the manufacturer performs, the manufacturer is extending credit to the customer and therefore earns interest income, not interest expense.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs 60-65 (existence of a significant financing component)
A company has a two-year, fixed-price contract to deliver 100 units per month of a standard component to a customer. After six months, the parties agree to add 20 more identical units per month for the remaining term, priced at the component's current standalone selling price. Under IFRS 15 paragraphs 18-21, how should the company account for this contract modification?
ABecause the added units are priced at the same rate the original contract already used, the modification requires a cumulative catch-up adjustment to revenue already recognized on units delivered in the first six months
BBecause the additional units are distinct and priced at their standalone selling price, the modification is accounted for as a separate contract, and revenue recognition for the original contract's remaining units continues unaffected
CBecause the modification changes the total quantity under a single master agreement, the company combines the remaining original units and the new units into one performance obligation and recognizes revenue using a blended price averaged over the whole remaining term
DBecause a contract modification always requires reassessment of the entire arrangement from inception, the company restates revenue recognized in the first six months using the expanded quantity and a newly blended price
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph 20 requires a contract modification to be accounted for as a separate contract when the additional promised goods or services are distinct from those already promised and the price of the contract increases by an amount that reflects the entity's standalone selling price for those additional goods or services. The 20 extra units per month are the same distinct standard component, priced at its current standalone selling price, so both conditions in paragraph 20 are met: the modification is a separate contract, and the original contract continues to be accounted for exactly as it was before the modification, with no adjustment to revenue already recognized. The option calling for a cumulative catch-up adjustment is wrong because catch-up adjustments apply to changes in transaction price or measure-of-progress estimates within a single performance obligation, not to a modification that qualifies as a wholly separate contract under paragraph 20. The option combining the original and additional units into one blended-price performance obligation describes the prospective treatment paragraph 21 requires when the remaining goods are distinct but the additional goods are not priced at standalone selling price -- a different fact pattern from this one, where the standalone-selling-price condition is satisfied and paragraph 20's separate-contract treatment therefore governs instead. The option requiring full retrospective restatement from contract inception is wrong because IFRS 15's modification guidance is applied prospectively from the modification date; it never reopens revenue already recognized for performance obligations satisfied before the modification.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs 18-21 (contract modifications)
A media company licenses a character trademark to a toy manufacturer. In exchange, the toy manufacturer pays a royalty equal to 5% of its quarterly net sales of toys using the character, and the license is the sole item to which the royalty relates. The media company transferred the license, and fully satisfied the related performance obligation, before the toy manufacturer's first quarter of covered sales began. Under IFRS 15 paragraph B63, when should the media company recognize the royalty revenue?
AIt estimates total expected royalties for the entire license period using the expected value method and recognizes that estimate as revenue when the license is granted, adjusting later for actual sales
BIt recognizes royalty revenue evenly on a straight-line basis over the license term, regardless of when the toy manufacturer's sales actually occur, because the license was satisfied at a single point in time
CIt recognizes royalty revenue only as the toy manufacturer's sales occur each quarter, because the sales-based royalty exception requires recognition at the later of the sale occurring and the related license performance obligation being satisfied
DBecause the royalty is variable, it applies the general constraint on variable consideration, deferring all revenue recognition until a significant reversal becomes unlikely, which in practice will be the end of the entire license term
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph B63 requires that revenue for a sales-based or usage-based royalty promised in exchange for a license of intellectual property be recognized only when, or as, the later of two events occurs: the subsequent sale or usage occurs, and the performance obligation to which the royalty has been allocated has been satisfied. This specific requirement overrides the general variable-consideration estimation and constraint guidance whenever a royalty relates predominantly or solely to a license of intellectual property, as it does here. Because the license was already satisfied before the first quarter's sales, the later of the two events each quarter is simply the sale occurring, so the media company recognizes the royalty revenue as each quarter's covered sales happen. The option estimating total expected royalties up front and recognizing them at grant is wrong because it applies the general expected-value approach for variable consideration, which paragraph B63 specifically displaces for sales-based and usage-based royalties on licenses of IP. The option recognizing revenue on a straight-line basis over the license term is wrong because it ignores the royalty's dependence on actual sales entirely, substituting a time-based pattern the standard does not permit for this fact pattern. The option applying the general constraint on variable consideration and deferring recognition until a reversal is unlikely is wrong because paragraph B63 is a specific exception to that general constraint, not an instance of it, and it ties recognition to the occurrence of sales, not to resolving overall estimation uncertainty.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph B63 (sales-based or usage-based royalties for licenses of intellectual property)
An equipment dealer sells specialized equipment to a customer for $100,000 and simultaneously enters into a forward agreement obligating the dealer to repurchase the same equipment in two years for $115,000, an amount that exceeds the original selling price. Under IFRS 15 paragraphs B66-B69, how should the dealer account for this arrangement?
ABecause legal title transfers to the customer at the point of sale, the dealer derecognizes the equipment and recognizes the full $100,000 as revenue immediately, treating the forward repurchase obligation as a separate onerous contract provision
BBecause the repurchase price is fixed and known in advance, the dealer treats the transaction as an operating lease of the equipment to the customer for two years, recognizing the $100,000 received as deferred lease income spread on a straight-line basis
CBecause the customer takes physical possession, the dealer recognizes the full $100,000 as revenue at delivery and separately recognizes a provision for the $15,000 expected loss on repurchase, releasing the provision when the repurchase occurs
DBecause the repurchase price of $115,000 is greater than the original selling price of $100,000, the customer has not obtained control of the equipment, so the dealer continues to recognize the equipment as its own asset, recognizes a financial liability for the $100,000 received, and recognizes the $15,000 difference as interest expense over the two years
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph B66 explains that if an entity has an obligation or a right to repurchase the asset (a forward or a call option), the customer has not obtained control of the asset, because the customer is limited in its ability to direct the use of, and obtain substantially all the remaining benefits from, the asset even though it holds physical possession. When the repurchase price is greater than or equal to the original selling price, the arrangement is accounted for as a financing arrangement: the entity continues to recognize the asset, recognizes a financial liability for the consideration received, and recognizes the difference between the consideration received and the amount to be paid on repurchase as interest expense. Here the $115,000 repurchase price exceeds the $100,000 sale price, so the dealer keeps the equipment on its books, records a $100,000 financial liability, and recognizes the $15,000 difference as interest expense over the two years. The option recognizing immediate revenue and derecognizing the equipment is wrong because control never transferred to the customer in the first place; the repurchase obligation itself is what prevents control from passing, so there is no sale to recognize. The option characterizing the arrangement as an operating lease is wrong because the dealer, not the customer, retains the equipment as its own asset under a financing arrangement, not as a lessor renting out an asset it has derecognized in substance. The option recognizing revenue with a separate loss provision is wrong because no sale or revenue arises at all when a repurchase obligation prevents control from transferring; the transaction is financing income and expense, not sales revenue offset by a provision.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs B66-B69 (repurchase agreements: forwards and calls)
A furniture manufacturer sells completed furniture to a retail customer, who asks the manufacturer to keep physical possession because the retailer's new store is not yet ready to receive it. The manufacturer has physically separated and tagged the furniture as belonging to that customer, the furniture is complete and ready for shipment, and the manufacturer will not use it or redirect it to any other customer. Under IFRS 15 paragraphs B79-B82, has the manufacturer transferred control of the furniture?
AYes -- because the furniture is complete and ready for delivery, has been separately identified as belonging to the customer, the manufacturer cannot use it or direct it elsewhere, and the customer's request for the delay has a substantive business reason, the manufacturer has transferred control and may recognize revenue, while also assessing whether it is providing a separate custodial storage service
BNo -- revenue can never be recognized on a bill-and-hold basis under IFRS 15, because physical possession is the only indicator of control that matters and the manufacturer retains possession of the furniture
CYes -- the manufacturer may recognize revenue immediately based solely on the fact that the customer has been invoiced and has an unconditional obligation to pay, without needing to consider whether the goods are separately identified or ready for shipment
DNo -- because the customer has not taken physical possession, the manufacturer must treat the arrangement as a consignment sale and recognize revenue only when the retailer resells the furniture to an end consumer
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraphs B79-B82 permit revenue recognition on a bill-and-hold basis when, in addition to the general control-transfer criteria, all of the following are met: the reason for the bill-and-hold arrangement is substantive, the product is separately identified as belonging to the customer, the product is currently ready for physical transfer to the customer, and the entity does not have the ability to use the product or to direct it to another customer. The scenario satisfies each of these: the retailer's unready store is a substantive reason, the furniture is tagged as the customer's, it is complete and ready for shipment, and the manufacturer will not redirect it. Paragraph B82 also requires the manufacturer to consider whether it is providing a separate custodial service, which affects how the transaction price is allocated but does not change the conclusion that control of the furniture itself has transferred. The option treating physical possession as the only relevant indicator is wrong because IFRS 15 lists physical possession as just one of several indicators of control, not a controlling one, and the bill-and-hold guidance exists precisely because control can transfer before physical possession does. The option recognizing revenue based solely on invoicing and an unconditional right to payment is wrong because an enforceable payment obligation alone does not satisfy the bill-and-hold criteria; the goods must also be separately identified, ready for shipment, and not available for redirection. The option requiring treatment as a consignment sale is wrong because consignment arrangements involve a dealer holding another party's inventory pending resale to a third party, an entirely different fact pattern from a bill-and-hold sale where control has already passed to the named customer.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs B79-B82 (bill-and-hold arrangements)
A company leases an entire office floor from a landlord under a ten-year head lease and recognizes a right-of-use asset and lease liability as the lessee. It then subleases half of that floor to another business for four years. The head lease is not a short-term lease. Under IFRS 16 paragraph B58, how should the company, acting as an intermediate lessor, classify the sublease?
AIt classifies the sublease by reference to the remaining useful life and fair value of the underlying office floor itself, exactly as any other lessor would when leasing owned property
BUnless the head lease is a short-term lease for which the company applies the recognition exemption, it classifies the sublease as a finance or operating lease by reference to the right-of-use asset arising from the head lease, not by reference to the underlying office floor
CBecause the company is simultaneously a lessee and a lessor of the same space, it nets the head lease and the sublease into a single arrangement and recognizes only the difference in cash flows as rental income
DThe classification of the sublease automatically mirrors whatever classification the original landlord used for the head lease, so if the landlord treated the head lease as an operating lease, the sublease must also be an operating lease regardless of its own terms
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph B58 requires an intermediate lessor to classify a sublease by reference to the right-of-use asset arising from the head lease, rather than by reference to the underlying asset, unless the head lease is itself a short-term lease that the entity, as lessee, has accounted for using the short-term lease recognition exemption, in which case the sublease is classified as an operating lease. Since the head lease here runs ten years and is not short-term, the company must assess the sublease against the right-of-use asset it recognized for the head lease, not against the office floor's own remaining life and fair value. The option classifying the sublease against the underlying floor's own useful life and fair value is wrong because that is precisely the ordinary lessor approach paragraph B58 displaces for intermediate lessors; the relevant asset for comparison is the right-of-use asset, which typically has a much shorter remaining life than the underlying property. The option netting the head lease and sublease into one arrangement is wrong because IFRS 16 requires an intermediate lessor to account for the head lease and the sublease as two separate contracts, applying lessee accounting to one and lessor accounting to the other, rather than presenting a single net position. The option automatically mirroring the head lessor's own classification is wrong because the sublease's classification depends on the intermediate lessor's own assessment of the right-of-use asset it holds, not on how a different party, the original landlord, classified an entirely separate contract.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraph B58 (classification of a sublease by an intermediate lessor)
A retailer leases store space under a contract requiring fixed monthly rent plus additional rent equal to 3% of the store's monthly sales revenue, with no minimum or cap on the sales-based portion. Under IFRS 16, how should the retailer treat the sales-based rent when initially measuring the lease liability and right-of-use asset, and how is it recognized afterward?
AIt estimates the total expected sales-based rent for the entire lease term using the expected value method and includes that estimate in the initial measurement of the lease liability and right-of-use asset, consistent with how variable consideration is estimated in revenue contracts
BIt includes the sales-based rent in the lease liability at its most likely amount, updating the lease liability every time actual sales differ from that original estimate
CBecause the payment depends on the store's future sales rather than an index or a rate, it does not meet the definition of a lease payment, so the retailer excludes it from the initial measurement of the lease liability and right-of-use asset and instead recognizes it as an expense in the period the sales occur
DIt treats the sales-based rent the same way as rent that increases with a published price index, capitalizing an initial estimate into the lease liability and remeasuring the liability whenever the applicable rate changes
Correct answer: .
Under IFRS 16, variable lease payments that do not depend on an index or a rate -- such as a percentage of a lessee's future sales -- do not meet the standard's definition of lease payments used to measure the lease liability and right-of-use asset. Because the 3%-of-sales rent depends entirely on the store's own future performance rather than on an index or rate, the retailer excludes it from the initial measurement of both the lease liability and the right-of-use asset, and instead recognizes it as an expense in profit or loss in the period in which the sales that trigger the payment actually occur. The option estimating total expected sales-based rent using the expected value method is wrong because that approach belongs to IFRS 15's variable consideration guidance for revenue contracts and is not how IFRS 16 treats non-index variable lease payments, which are excluded from measurement rather than estimated and capitalized. The option including a most-likely-amount estimate and updating it as sales come in is wrong for the same reason: IFRS 16 does not require or permit forecasting these uncertain, sales-dependent amounts into the lease liability at all. The option treating the sales-based rent the same as index-linked rent is wrong because index-linked or rate-linked variable payments are included in the initial lease liability measurement using the rate or index at commencement and remeasured when the index or rate changes, which is a fundamentally different mechanism from a payment tied to the lessee's own sales, a variable IFRS 16 deliberately excludes from that treatment.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraph 27 and Appendix A (variable lease payments not based on an index or a rate)
A company leases ten identical delivery vans, each under an 11-month lease, and separately leases many individual laptops, each of which qualifies as a low-value asset. Its finance team wants to apply the short-term lease exemption to only some of the van leases while capitalizing the rest as right-of-use assets, and wants to apply the low-value asset exemption to only some of the laptop leases while capitalizing the rest. Under IFRS 16, which practice, if any, is permitted?
ANeither election allows any selectivity: once IFRS 16's exemptions are adopted, they must be applied to every short-term lease and every low-value asset lease the company holds, with no class-by-class or lease-by-lease choice available
BThe short-term lease election is made lease-by-lease, so the company may select individual van leases to exempt, while the low-value asset election must be applied consistently to the entire class of low-value assets, such as all laptops
CBoth elections are made on a lease-by-lease basis, so the company may freely choose which specific van leases and which specific laptop leases to exempt from right-of-use recognition
DThe short-term lease election must be made consistently for the class of underlying asset to which the leases relate, so the company cannot exempt only some of its delivery van leases while capitalizing others; the low-value asset election, by contrast, is made on a lease-by-lease basis, so the company may exempt some individual laptop leases without exempting every laptop lease
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 gives lessees two recognition exemptions with different units of election. The short-term lease exemption must be elected consistently by class of underlying asset to which the right of use relates, so an entity cannot apply it to some leases within a class, such as some delivery vans, while capitalizing other leases of the same class of asset. The low-value asset exemption, by contrast, may be elected on a lease-by-lease basis, so an entity can choose to exempt some individual low-value asset leases, such as some laptops, without needing to exempt every laptop lease. The company's plan to selectively exempt only some van leases therefore breaches the class-by-class requirement for short-term leases, while its plan to selectively exempt only some laptop leases is exactly what the lease-by-lease low-value asset election permits. The option denying any selectivity at all is wrong because the low-value asset election is explicitly available on a lease-by-lease basis. The option reversing the two rules, treating short-term leases as lease-by-lease and low-value assets as class-wide, is wrong because it has the two units of election backwards. The option allowing full selectivity for both elections is wrong because the short-term lease exemption specifically requires consistent application across the relevant class of underlying asset, not ad hoc selection among individual leases within that class.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraphs 5-8 (recognition exemptions: short-term leases and leases of low-value assets)
A company sells a warehouse with a carrying amount of $600,000 to a bank for its fair value of $1,000,000 cash, and immediately leases the warehouse back for three years with no repurchase option, a term that is short relative to the warehouse's remaining useful life. The company determines that the bank has obtained control of the warehouse, so the transfer qualifies as a sale under IFRS 15. At commencement, the present value of the leaseback payments represents 20% of the warehouse's fair value. Under IFRS 16 paragraph 100, how should the company (seller-lessee) measure the right-of-use asset and any gain on the transaction?
AIt measures the right-of-use asset at the proportion of the warehouse's previous carrying amount that relates to the right of use it retains through the leaseback, and recognizes a gain only for the proportion of the overall gain that relates to the rights transferred to the buyer-lessor, not the full difference between sale proceeds and carrying amount
BBecause the sale price was agreed at fair value in cash, it derecognizes the full carrying amount of the warehouse, recognizes the entire $400,000 difference between sale proceeds and carrying amount as a gain, and separately recognizes a right-of-use asset equal to the present value of the future lease payments
CBecause the leaseback term is short relative to the warehouse's remaining useful life, the arrangement fails the control-transfer test entirely, so the company treats the whole transaction as a financing arrangement and continues to recognize the warehouse and a financial liability for the $1,000,000 received
DThe company recognizes no gain or loss at all on the transaction, deferring the entire $400,000 difference between sale proceeds and carrying amount and amortizing it into income on a straight-line basis over the three-year leaseback term
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph 100 requires that, when a transfer of an asset satisfies IFRS 15's requirements to be accounted for as a sale, the seller-lessee measures the right-of-use asset arising from the leaseback at the proportion of the previous carrying amount of the asset that relates to the right of use it retains, rather than at the present value of the future lease payments or the asset's full carrying amount. Because the right of use the seller-lessee retains is not remeasured to fair value as part of the transaction, only the gain or loss relating to the rights transferred to the buyer-lessor is recognized, determined using the same proportion used to measure the right-of-use asset; the retained 20% proportion of the $600,000 carrying amount becomes the right-of-use asset, and only the gain attributable to the 80% of rights transferred is recognized in profit or loss. The option recognizing the full $400,000 gain while separately measuring the right-of-use asset at the present value of future lease payments is wrong because paragraph 100 caps recognized gain at the proportion relating to transferred rights and measures the right-of-use asset from the proportion of previous carrying amount retained, not from the leaseback payments. The option treating the transaction as a failed sale is wrong because the facts state the bank obtained control and the transfer qualifies as a sale under IFRS 15; a short leaseback term relative to the asset's life does not by itself defeat a control transfer that has already been established. The option deferring the entire gain and amortizing it over the leaseback term reflects the superseded IAS 17 deferred-gain approach, which IFRS 16 replaced with the proportionate-gain method in paragraph 100.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraph 100 (sale and leaseback: measuring the right-of-use asset and gain on a qualifying sale)
An equipment leasing company leases specialized machinery to a customer under a contract that the lessor classifies as a finance lease. At commencement, the lessor expects to receive lease payments and also expects the machinery will have an unguaranteed residual value at the end of the lease term. Under IFRS 16, what does the lessor recognize as its net investment in the lease, and at what rate are its components discounted?
AThe net investment equals only the present value of the lease payments the lessor expects to receive, discounted at its incremental borrowing rate; any residual value of the machinery expected at the end of the lease is excluded because it is unguaranteed
BThe net investment equals the sum of the lease payments receivable and any unguaranteed residual value accruing to the lessor, discounted at the interest rate implicit in the lease, which is the rate that equates the present value of those amounts to the fair value of the machinery plus the lessor's initial direct costs
CThe net investment equals the fair value of the machinery at commencement, unadjusted for either the timing of the lease payments or the unguaranteed residual value, because the lessor carries the machinery at fair value throughout the lease term
DThe net investment equals the sum of the lease payments receivable and the unguaranteed residual value, both discounted using the lessee's incremental borrowing rate rather than any rate specific to the lessor's own agreement
Correct answer: .
Under IFRS 16, a lessor's net investment in a finance lease is defined as the sum of the lease payments receivable and any unguaranteed residual value accruing to the lessor, both discounted at the interest rate implicit in the lease -- the rate that causes the present value of the lease payments and the unguaranteed residual value to equal the sum of the fair value of the underlying asset and any initial direct costs incurred by the lessor. This rate is specific to the lessor's own agreement, embedding the lessor's initial direct costs directly into the measurement without a separate add-on step. The option excluding the unguaranteed residual value and discounting only the lease payments at the lessor's incremental borrowing rate is wrong on two points: unguaranteed residual value is explicitly included in the net investment, and the discount rate used is the rate implicit in the lease, not the lessor's own borrowing rate. The option carrying the machinery at unadjusted fair value throughout the lease term is wrong because a finance lease is accounted for as a receivable, the net investment in the lease, not as an asset held and measured at fair value. The option discounting using the lessee's incremental borrowing rate is wrong because the lessee's incremental borrowing rate is relevant to the lessee's own lease liability measurement when the rate implicit in the lease cannot be readily determined; the lessor's net investment measurement always uses the rate implicit in the lease, a rate the lessor itself calculates.
Source: IFRS 16 Leases, paragraphs 68 and Appendix A (lessor's net investment in a finance lease; interest rate implicit in the lease)
A software company sells a one-year subscription to its analytics platform. As part of the same contract, the customer receives an option to renew the subscription for a second year at a price that is meaningfully lower than the discount the company typically offers other customers renewing a similar subscription in the same market. The company has not yet determined whether this renewal option affects how it accounts for the original contract. Under IFRS 15's guidance on customer options for additional goods or services (paragraphs B39-B43), how should the company treat this renewal option?
ARecognize the option as a distinct performance obligation regardless of the size of the renewal discount, because any option to acquire future goods or services at a discount must always be accounted for as a promise in the current contract
BDisregard the option entirely when accounting for the original contract, because a promise about a future renewal contract is a separate transaction outside the scope of the existing contract's performance obligations
CAssess whether the discount is incremental to what the company typically offers that class of customer; because it is, the option provides a material right that the customer would not receive without entering into this contract, so the company must account for it as a separate performance obligation and allocate part of the transaction price to it
DRecognize the option as marketing expense at contract inception, because incentives that encourage a customer to renew are selling costs rather than performance obligations, regardless of whether the discount is incremental to the company's normal pricing
Correct answer: .
Under IFRS 15 paragraphs B39-B43, an option to acquire additional goods or services gives rise to a separate performance obligation only if it provides the customer a material right that it would not otherwise receive -- for example, a discount that is incremental to the range the company typically grants that class of customer in that market. Because the renewal discount here goes beyond the company's normal renewal pricing, the option is a material right, so part of the transaction price must be allocated to it and recognized as revenue when the future subscription is transferred or when the option expires unexercised. Treating every discounted option as an automatic performance obligation is wrong because paragraphs B39-B43 condition that treatment specifically on the discount being incremental to normal pricing, not on the mere existence of any discount. Disregarding the option as an unrelated future transaction is wrong because a material right embedded in the current contract is explicitly within the scope of the existing contract's performance obligations, not a separate transaction. Classifying the incentive as marketing expense is wrong because a material right is accounted for as revenue allocated to a performance obligation, not as an expense, regardless of how the incentive is labelled commercially.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs B39-B43 (customer options for additional goods or services)
A health club charges new members a one-time, non-refundable joining fee at signup, in addition to a recurring monthly membership fee. The joining fee does not grant the member any additional service, discount, or access beyond what the monthly fee itself provides, and the club does not perform any distinct activity for the member in exchange for that specific fee beyond routine account setup. Under IFRS 15's guidance on non-refundable upfront fees (paragraphs B48-B49), how should the club account for the joining fee?
ATreat the fee as an advance payment for the future membership services rather than as consideration for a separate good or service, and recognize it as revenue over the period the member is expected to receive services, because the setup activity performed at signup does not itself transfer a promised good or service to the member
BRecognize the entire fee as revenue immediately at signup, because the fee is described as non-refundable and non-refundable fees are recognized in full when cash is received regardless of when related services are provided
CRecognize the fee as a reduction of the club's contract-acquisition costs, offsetting the commissions paid to staff who sign up new members, rather than as revenue at all
DDefer the fee indefinitely as a liability until the membership is cancelled, because a fee described as non-refundable can never be recognized as revenue while the member remains active
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraphs B48-B49 address non-refundable upfront fees such as health club joining fees, activation fees, and setup fees, explaining that although these fees relate to an activity the entity performs at or near contract inception, that setup activity typically does not itself transfer a promised good or service to the customer. Because no distinct good or service is transferred in exchange for the joining fee specifically, the fee is in substance an advance payment for the future membership services and must be recognized as revenue over the period those future services are provided, not immediately. The option recognizing the entire fee immediately is wrong because the label 'non-refundable' does not by itself justify immediate recognition; what matters is whether a distinct good or service was transferred, and here none was. The option netting the fee against acquisition costs is wrong because the fee is consideration received from the customer for future services, unrelated to how the club separately accounts for its own commission costs. The option deferring the fee indefinitely is wrong because the fee is recognized progressively as the future membership services are actually provided, not withheld from revenue altogether while the member is active.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs B48-B49 (non-refundable upfront fees)
A furniture manufacturer delivers finished sofas to an independent retail store, but under their agreement the manufacturer retains the ability to require the store to return any unsold sofas or transfer them to a different store at any time, and the manufacturer continues to control the sofas until the store actually sells a unit to an end customer. Under IFRS 15's guidance on consignment arrangements (paragraphs B77-B78), how should the manufacturer account for a sofa delivered to the store but not yet sold to an end customer?
ARecognize revenue when the sofa is physically delivered to the store, because physical delivery to another party is itself the transfer of control regardless of any retained rights over the product
BRecognize revenue on delivery to the store but reverse it later if the sofa is eventually returned, treating the arrangement the same as an ordinary sale with a right of return
CRecognize revenue evenly over an estimated average holding period at the store, because the manufacturer cannot reliably predict exactly when any individual sofa will sell
DDo not recognize revenue on delivery to the store; because the manufacturer retains control of the sofa, including the ability to require its return or redirect it elsewhere, the sofa is held on consignment and revenue is recognized only when the store sells it to an end customer
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraphs B77-B78 require an entity that delivers a product to another party, such as a dealer or retailer, to evaluate whether that party has obtained control of the product at the point of delivery; indicators that control has not transferred include the entity retaining the ability to require the product's return or to redirect it to another party, and the product remaining under the entity's control until a specified event, typically its sale to an end customer. Because the manufacturer here retains exactly that ability and that control, the sofa is held on consignment, so no revenue is recognized on delivery to the store; revenue is recognized only when the store sells the sofa onward. The option recognizing revenue on physical delivery alone is wrong because physical possession without control transfer, as evidenced by the retained recall and redirect rights, does not satisfy IFRS 15's control-based recognition criterion. The option treating this as an ordinary sale with a right of return is wrong because a right-of-return sale involves control transferring to the customer at delivery with a subsequent contingent reversal, whereas a consignment arrangement means control never transferred to the store in the first place. The option spreading revenue over an estimated holding period is wrong because revenue recognition under a consignment arrangement is triggered by the specific event of sale to the end customer, not by the passage of an estimated average time period.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs B77-B78 (consignment arrangements)
A contractor is fulfilling a long-term construction contract. During the project, a portion of specialized material is wasted due to a measurement error on site and must be discarded and replaced at the contractor's own cost; this wastage was not reflected in the price charged to the customer. Under IFRS 15's guidance on costs to fulfil a contract (paragraphs 95-98), how should the contractor account for the cost of the wasted material?
ACapitalize the cost of the wasted material as an asset and amortize it over the remaining contract term, because any cost incurred while fulfilling an active contract meets the capitalization criteria in paragraph 95
BRecognize the cost of the wasted material as an expense when incurred, because it does not generate or enhance a resource that will be used to satisfy the contractor's remaining performance obligations under the contract
CRecognize the cost as a reduction of the transaction price for the contract, because customers ultimately bear the economic effect of any inefficiency in fulfilling a contract
DDefer the cost and recognize it as an expense only when the entire contract is complete, because costs incurred while fulfilling an ongoing contract cannot be expensed before the related performance obligations are satisfied
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph 95 permits capitalizing costs incurred to fulfil a contract only when those costs generate or enhance resources that will be used to satisfy performance obligations in the future; paragraph 98 specifically requires costs such as wasted materials, labor, or other resources used to fulfil the contract that were not reflected in the contract price to be expensed as incurred, because they do not generate or enhance any future resource -- they simply reflect inefficiency that has already occurred. Wasted material here is discarded rather than incorporated into anything the contractor will use going forward, so it fails the capitalization test in paragraph 95 and must be expensed immediately. The option capitalizing every cost incurred during an active contract is wrong because paragraph 95's criteria require the cost to generate or enhance a future resource, a test wasted material specifically fails. The option treating the waste as a transaction-price reduction is wrong because a cost the contractor incurs to fulfil its own obligations is not consideration owed to or from the customer, and the transaction price is unaffected by the contractor's internal inefficiency. The option deferring the expense until contract completion is wrong because paragraph 98 requires immediate expensing of exactly this type of cost, not deferral to a later reporting period.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraphs 95-98 (costs to fulfil a contract)
A wholesaler delivers goods to a customer and transfers control immediately, but under the contract's payment terms the customer is not required to pay until eight months after delivery. At contract inception, the wholesaler expects this eight-month gap to be the only difference in timing between performance and payment for this contract. Under IFRS 15's practical expedient in paragraph 63, how should the wholesaler treat the financing effect of this payment timing?
ACalculate and separately present a financing component regardless of the length of the payment gap, because paragraph 63's practical expedient applies only to contracts with no payment gap at all
BTreat the eight-month gap as a significant financing component only if the wholesaler can show the gap was requested by the customer for financing reasons rather than for operational convenience
CApply the practical expedient in paragraph 63 and need not adjust the promised consideration for the effects of a financing component, because the gap between transfer of the goods and expected payment is one year or less
DAlways adjust the transaction price for a financing component whenever payment occurs more than thirty days after delivery, because paragraph 63's one-year threshold applies only to service contracts, not to sales of goods
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph 63 provides a practical expedient allowing an entity to forgo adjusting the promised consideration for the effects of a significant financing component whenever the entity expects, at contract inception, that the period between transferring the promised goods or services and the customer's payment will be one year or less. The eight-month gap here falls within that one-year threshold, so the wholesaler may apply the expedient and account for the contract without any separate financing adjustment. The option requiring a financing component calculation regardless of gap length is wrong because it inverts the expedient's actual condition, which is available precisely when the gap is a year or less, not only when there is no gap. The option conditioning the financing component's existence on the customer's motive for requesting the timing is wrong because paragraph 63's expedient turns on the length of the expected payment gap, not on why the customer negotiated that particular timing. The option limiting the expedient to service contracts is wrong because paragraph 63 applies to the transfer of any promised goods or services, with no such restriction to services only.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph 63 (significant financing component practical expedient)
A retailer leases several warehouse buildings. Each lease contract bundles the building rental together with the landlord's provision of common-area maintenance services, a non-lease component. The retailer's accounting policy, applied consistently to every warehouse lease it enters into, is not to separate the maintenance service from the building rental and instead to account for the entire payment as a single lease component. Under IFRS 16's practical expedient in paragraph 15, is this policy permitted?
ANo, because IFRS 16 never permits a lessee to combine a lease component with a non-lease component under any circumstances, regardless of consistency
BYes, but only for leases with a term of twelve months or less, because the practical expedient in paragraph 15 is restricted to short-term leases
CNo, because the practical expedient in paragraph 15 is available only to lessors, and a lessee must always separate lease and non-lease components
DYes, because paragraph 15 allows a lessee to elect, for a class of underlying asset, not to separate non-lease components from lease components and instead account for the combination as a single lease component, provided the election is applied consistently to all leases within that asset class
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph 15 gives a lessee a practical expedient to elect, by class of underlying asset, not to separate non-lease components such as maintenance services from the associated lease component, and instead to account for the lease component and non-lease component together as a single lease component. This election must be made and applied consistently across the whole class of underlying asset, such as all warehouse buildings, rather than lease by lease, which is exactly what the retailer has done here, so the policy is permitted. The option asserting that combination is never permitted is wrong because paragraph 15 exists specifically to allow this combination as an accounting policy choice. The option restricting the expedient to short-term leases is wrong because paragraph 15's practical expedient is a general election available for any class of underlying asset, with no length restriction of that kind. The option asserting the expedient is available only to lessors is wrong because paragraph 15 is a lessee practical expedient; lessors are in fact the party that IFRS 16 requires to always separate lease and non-lease components, the opposite restriction.
A lessee enters into a five-year lease for retail space. The contract states that monthly rent is 'variable,' calculated as a percentage of the store's operating hours during the month. In practice, the lease also requires the store to remain open a fixed minimum number of hours every month, and falling short of that minimum is not a realistic possibility given the store's business model, meaning the lessee will in substance always incur at least a calculable minimum rent amount every month regardless of how the payment is labelled. Under IFRS 16's guidance on lease payments (paragraph B42), how should the lessee treat this minimum, calculable rent amount when initially measuring the lease liability?
AInclude the minimum, calculable amount as an in-substance fixed payment within the lease payments used to measure the lease liability at commencement, because although the payment is variable in form, it is in substance unavoidable
BExclude the entire payment from the lease liability at commencement, because any payment described contractually as variable is, by definition, excluded from lease payments regardless of whether it is avoidable in practice
CInclude the payment in the lease liability only from the date the minimum hours requirement is actually breached, because until a breach occurs, the payment remains genuinely variable and therefore excluded
DRecognize the minimum amount as a separate financial liability under IFRS 9 rather than as part of the lease liability, because payments tied to operating metrics such as store hours fall outside the scope of lease payments in IFRS 16
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph B42 explains that some lease payments structured as variable are, in substance, unavoidable and are therefore treated as in-substance fixed payments, included within the lease payments used to measure the lease liability at commencement despite their variable form. Here, the minimum operating-hours requirement is realistically certain to be met given the store's business model, so the resulting minimum rent amount is unavoidable in substance even though the contract labels it as variable, and it must be included in the initial lease liability measurement. The option excluding the entire payment purely because of its contractual label is wrong because paragraph B42's test looks past the form of a payment to its substance, and a payment that is unavoidable in substance is captured regardless of how it is described. The option including the amount only once a shortfall actually occurs is wrong because the in-substance fixed portion is identified and measured at lease commencement based on what is realistically unavoidable, not retrospectively triggered by an actual breach. The option treating the amount as a separate IFRS 9 financial liability is wrong because a payment for the right to use the underlying asset under the lease contract is a lease payment within the scope of IFRS 16, not a separate financial instrument governed by a different standard.
A company enters into a large number of small equipment leases each year, all with very similar terms, similar lease lengths, and similar underlying assets. Rather than measuring each lease liability and right-of-use asset individually, the company wants to apply IFRS 16's recognition and measurement requirements to these leases as a single group, using shared estimates and assumptions that reflect the size and composition of the group. Under IFRS 16's portfolio approach (paragraph 4), when is this permitted?
ANever, because IFRS 16 always requires each individual lease contract to be measured and disclosed separately, with no grouping permitted under any circumstance
BOnly during the reporting period in which the company first adopts IFRS 16, and never again for leases entered into afterward
CWhenever the company reasonably expects that applying IFRS 16 to the portfolio, using estimates and assumptions reflecting the portfolio's size and composition, would not produce a materially different effect on the financial statements than applying the Standard to each lease individually
DOnly if every lease in the portfolio is classified as a short-term lease or a low-value asset lease under the separate recognition exemptions
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph 4 permits an entity to apply the Standard to a portfolio of leases with similar characteristics, using estimates and assumptions that reflect the size and composition of that portfolio, whenever the entity reasonably expects the financial statement effects of the portfolio-level approach would not differ materially from applying the Standard lease by lease. This is a general practical expedient available whenever that materiality condition is met, not a one-time transition-only allowance, so the company's approach here is permitted as long as it reasonably expects no material difference from individual measurement. The option requiring separate treatment in all circumstances is wrong because paragraph 4 exists specifically to permit portfolio-level application when its materiality condition holds. The option restricting the approach to the year of initial adoption is wrong because paragraph 4 is a standing provision within the recognition and measurement requirements, available for leases entered into at any time, not limited to a transition period. The option restricting the approach to short-term or low-value leases is wrong because the portfolio approach in paragraph 4 is a distinct, general provision, unrelated to and not conditioned on the separate short-term or low-value asset exemptions.
A lessee recognized a right-of-use asset and lease liability for a leased factory, and measures the right-of-use asset using the cost model. Midway through the lease term, a downturn specific to the factory's product line causes the lessee to believe the right-of-use asset may no longer be recoverable at its carrying amount. Under IFRS 16, which framework governs whether the right-of-use asset is impaired and, if so, how the impairment loss is measured?
AIFRS 16 itself contains a standalone impairment test for right-of-use assets, entirely separate from the impairment requirements applied to owned property, plant, and equipment
BNo impairment test applies to right-of-use assets at all; instead, the lessee simply remeasures the lease liability to reflect the reduced economic benefit expected from the leased asset
CThe onerous contract requirements in IAS 37 apply, treating the right-of-use asset the same way an unavoidable-cost provision would be treated for a lease that is no longer expected to be economically favorable
DIFRS 16 paragraph 33 requires the lessee to apply IAS 36 Impairment of Assets to determine whether the right-of-use asset is impaired and, if so, to measure and recognize the impairment loss, the same framework used for the lessee's owned property, plant, and equipment
Correct answer: .
IFRS 16 paragraph 33 requires a lessee measuring its right-of-use asset under the cost model to apply IAS 36 Impairment of Assets to determine whether the asset is impaired and, if it is, to measure and recognize the resulting impairment loss, placing the right-of-use asset within the same impairment framework the lessee already applies to its owned property, plant, and equipment. Because IFRS 16 defers entirely to IAS 36 rather than creating its own impairment mechanism, the factory's right-of-use asset is tested and, if necessary, written down exactly as an owned factory building would be. The option describing a standalone impairment test within IFRS 16 itself is wrong because IFRS 16 paragraph 33 explicitly incorporates IAS 36 rather than setting out its own separate impairment criteria. The option asserting no impairment test applies, with only lease liability remeasurement occurring, is wrong because the right-of-use asset and the lease liability are distinct items; a decline in the asset's recoverable amount is addressed through IAS 36 impairment of the asset, not through remeasuring the liability. The option applying the IAS 37 onerous contract framework is wrong because IFRS 16 superseded the previous onerous-lease approach for lessees that recognize a right-of-use asset; once a lease is on-balance-sheet under IFRS 16, its asset-side impairment is governed by IAS 36, not by IAS 37's provision-based model.
A company has a contract to design and build a single, highly integrated software system for a customer over 18 months; the system's components are so interdependent that they do not qualify as distinct performance obligations, and the whole project is treated as one combined performance obligation satisfied over time. After 12 months, the customer and the company agree to expand the scope of the same integrated system, and the additional work is so interconnected with the work already completed that the remaining goods and services to be provided, including the expanded scope, are not distinct from the goods and services already transferred as part of that same combined performance obligation. Under IFRS 15 paragraph 21(b), how should the company account for this modification?
AAccount for the modification as a separate contract from the original contract, allocating a portion of the additional consideration to a new, distinct performance obligation created by the expanded scope
BAccount for the modification as if it were part of the original contract, updating the measure of progress toward the single combined performance obligation and recognizing the cumulative effect on revenue as an adjustment to revenue at the date of the modification
CTerminate the original contract and treat the modification as an entirely new contract, resetting the measure of progress toward the performance obligation to zero at the date of the modification
DRecognize the additional consideration from the modification only when the entire expanded project is eventually completed, deferring any revenue effect until final delivery regardless of progress already made
Correct answer: .
IFRS 15 paragraph 21(b) requires that when the remaining goods and services to be provided under a modification are not distinct from those already transferred as part of a single, partially satisfied performance obligation, the entity accounts for the modification as if it were part of the original contract; the entity updates its measure of progress toward the combined performance obligation and recognizes the cumulative effect of that updated progress as an adjustment to revenue at the date of the modification, a cumulative catch-up adjustment. Because the expanded scope here is inseparable from the single integrated system already being built, that is exactly the treatment required. The option treating the modification as a separate contract with a new distinct obligation is wrong because paragraph 21(b) applies precisely because the remaining goods and services are not distinct, which rules out the separate-contract treatment reserved for modifications involving genuinely distinct additional goods or services. The option terminating the original contract and resetting progress to zero is wrong because paragraph 21(b) requires continuing to measure progress toward the same combined obligation on a cumulative basis, not discarding progress already recognized. The option deferring all revenue effect until final completion is wrong because the cumulative catch-up adjustment is recognized at the date of the modification itself, reflecting progress to date under the revised scope, not postponed until the project eventually finishes.
Source: IFRS 15 Revenue from Contracts with Customers, paragraph 21(b) (contract modifications -- remaining goods not distinct)