A company holds an asset group classified as held and used with a carrying amount of $500,000. Management estimates the group will generate undiscounted future cash flows of $560,000 over its remaining life through continued use and eventual disposal, but the asset group's current fair value is only $430,000. Under ASC 360-10-35, what should the company recognize?
AAn impairment loss of $70,000, because the carrying amount exceeds fair value
BAn impairment loss of $70,000, but only if the fair value shortfall persists for two consecutive reporting periods
CAn impairment loss of $130,000, the difference between the undiscounted cash flows and fair value
DNo impairment loss — the carrying amount is recoverable under the undiscounted cash flow test, and fair value is compared to carrying amount only if that recoverability test fails
Correct answer: .
ASC 360-10-35 uses a two-step model for long-lived assets held and used. Step 1, the recoverability test, compares the carrying amount to the total undiscounted cash flows expected from the asset's use and eventual disposal. Here $560,000 of undiscounted cash flows exceeds the $500,000 carrying amount, so the asset is deemed recoverable and no impairment is recognized, regardless of what fair value shows. Fair value is only brought in as Step 2, to measure the loss, and only if Step 1 fails. The option recognizing a $70,000 loss because carrying amount exceeds fair value wrongly jumps straight to comparing fair value against carrying amount, skipping the recoverability test that the asset actually passed. The option requiring the shortfall to persist for two consecutive reporting periods invents a persistence requirement that appears nowhere in ASC 360. The option measuring a $130,000 loss nonsensically nets undiscounted cash flows against fair value, two figures that are never combined under this model.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35 (Impairment or Disposal of Long-Lived Assets — recoverability test)
A manufacturer's board approves a plan to sell an idle factory. The company has an active program in place to locate a buyer, has listed the factory at a price reasonable in relation to its current fair value, and expects the sale to complete within a year, but has not yet obtained a signed purchase agreement or firm buyer commitment. Under ASC 360-10-45, can the factory be classified as held for sale at the balance sheet date?
AYes — all of the ASC 360-10-45-9 criteria can be met without a signed agreement: management is committed to a plan to sell, the factory is available for immediate sale, an active buyer search is underway, the price is reasonable, and the sale is probable within one year with no expected significant changes to the plan
BNo, because a binding sale agreement or buyer commitment is required before held-for-sale classification is permitted
CNo, because held-for-sale classification also requires the board's approval to be filed with the SEC before the balance sheet date
DYes, but only if the factory is simultaneously reclassified as a discontinued operation in the same period
Correct answer: .
ASC 360-10-45-9 sets out six criteria for held-for-sale classification: management commits to a plan to sell, the asset is available for immediate sale in its present condition, an active program to locate a buyer has been initiated, the sale is probable and expected to complete within one year, the asset is being actively marketed at a price reasonable in relation to its current fair value, and it is unlikely the plan will be significantly changed or withdrawn. None of these require a signed purchase agreement or buyer commitment, which would mean the sale has effectively already happened rather than being merely probable. The option requiring a binding sale agreement or buyer commitment invents a precondition that isn't part of the six criteria. The option requiring an SEC filing of the board's approval confuses this accounting classification with unrelated securities-filing obligations. The option conditioning classification on simultaneous discontinued-operation treatment wrongly conflates held-for-sale classification with discontinued-operations reporting, which is governed by separate criteria under ASC 205-20 requiring a strategic shift with a major effect on operations.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-45-9 (criteria for classification as held for sale)
In 2024, a company recognized a $200,000 impairment loss on an operating warehouse classified as held and used, writing its carrying amount down to fair value. In 2026, market conditions rebound and an appraisal shows the warehouse's fair value has recovered to well above its 2024 pre-impairment carrying amount. Under US GAAP, may the company reverse any portion of the 2024 impairment loss?
AYes, but only the portion of the recovery attributable to general inflation may be recognized as a gain
BNo — ASC 360-10-35-20 prohibits reversing an impairment loss on a held-and-used long-lived asset once recognized, even if fair value later recovers; the written-down amount becomes the asset's new cost basis and is depreciated prospectively
CYes, the recovery must be recognized as a gain up to the amount of the original impairment loss
DNo, unless the company sells the warehouse, in which case the reversal is recognized retroactively by restating the 2024 financial statements
Correct answer: .
Under ASC 360-10-35-20, once an impairment loss is recognized for a long-lived asset held and used, US GAAP prohibits reversing it even if the asset's fair value later recovers; the reduced carrying amount becomes the asset's new cost basis and is depreciated over its remaining useful life going forward. This differs from IFRS's IAS 36, which permits reversing impairment losses on most assets (other than goodwill) when circumstances improve. Option C describes the IFRS approach, not US GAAP. Option A invents an inflation-linked carve-out that does not exist in ASC 360. Option D is wrong because a later sale would simply produce an ordinary gain or loss on disposal recognized in the period of sale — GAAP does not permit retroactively restating a prior period's already-issued financial statements to undo a correctly measured impairment.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35-20 (prohibition on reversal of impairment losses)
A reporting unit has a carrying amount, including goodwill, of $9 million. Management skips the optional qualitative assessment and performs the quantitative goodwill impairment test, determining the reporting unit's fair value is $7.5 million. The reporting unit's goodwill balance is $3 million. Under the current ASC 350-20 goodwill impairment test as amended by ASU 2017-04, what impairment loss should be recognized?
A$3 million — the entire goodwill balance must be written off whenever fair value is less than carrying amount, regardless of the size of the shortfall
B$0 — a hypothetical purchase price allocation must first be performed to determine the implied fair value of goodwill before any loss can be recognized
C$1.5 million — the excess of the reporting unit's carrying amount over its fair value, recognized as a goodwill impairment loss because it does not exceed the $3 million goodwill balance
D$1.5 million, but recognized as a direct reduction to retained earnings rather than as a component of income from continuing operations
Correct answer: .
ASU 2017-04 replaced the old two-step goodwill impairment test in ASC 350-20 with a single-step test: the impairment loss equals the amount by which the reporting unit's carrying amount exceeds its fair value, capped at the total goodwill allocated to that unit. Here the shortfall is $9 million minus $7.5 million, or $1.5 million, which is less than the $3 million goodwill balance, so the loss recognized is $1.5 million rather than a full write-off. The option writing off the entire $3 million overstates the loss by ignoring the excess-of-carrying-over-fair-value measurement; a full write-off of goodwill would only be correct if the shortfall equaled or exceeded the goodwill balance. The option calling for a hypothetical purchase price allocation describes the old Step 2 procedure that ASU 2017-04 eliminated. The option charging the loss directly to retained earnings is wrong because a goodwill impairment loss is recognized in operating income as part of continuing operations, not as a direct adjustment to equity.
Source: FASB ASC 350-20-35 as amended by ASU 2017-04 (Simplifying the Test for Goodwill Impairment)
A company owns a trademark with an indefinite life (no legal, contractual, or economic factors limiting its life), carried at $2 million. At its annual testing date, management performs a qualitative assessment of macroeconomic conditions, industry trends, and entity-specific factors and concludes it is not more likely than not (that is, less than a 50% likelihood) that the trademark is impaired. Under ASC 350-30, what must the company do next?
ANothing further this period — because the qualitative assessment concluded impairment is not more likely than not, the company may bypass the quantitative fair-value comparison for this testing cycle
BProceed to the quantitative test regardless, comparing fair value to carrying amount, because the qualitative assessment is only advisory and can never substitute for the quantitative test
CBegin amortizing the trademark going forward, because indefinite-lived intangible assets that pass a qualitative test must be reclassified as finite-lived
DPerform the pre-2017 two-step goodwill impairment test, because indefinite-lived intangible assets other than goodwill follow the old goodwill impairment model
Correct answer: .
ASC 350-30-35 allows an entity to first perform an optional qualitative assessment for an indefinite-lived intangible asset other than goodwill to decide whether it is more likely than not that the asset is impaired. If the entity concludes it is not more likely than not, it may bypass the quantitative fair-value-versus-carrying-amount comparison for that testing cycle, similar to the analogous option available for goodwill. Option B misstates the standard: the entire purpose of the qualitative option is that it can substitute for quantitative testing when the more-likely-than-not threshold isn't met. Option C is wrong because passing a qualitative impairment assessment has no bearing on useful-life classification; whether an intangible asset's life is indefinite depends on separate cash-flow-generating factors, not on impairment test outcomes. Option D is wrong because indefinite-lived intangibles other than goodwill have always used a direct fair-value-to-carrying-amount comparison under ASC 350-30, unrelated to the goodwill-specific simplification made by ASU 2017-04.
Source: FASB ASC 350-30-35 (impairment testing of indefinite-lived intangible assets)
A utility company owns a power plant comprising a turbine with a 10-year useful life and a building shell with a 40-year useful life, acquired together as a single asset. Under US GAAP, is the utility required to separately depreciate the turbine and building shell as distinct components with their own useful lives?
AYes, ASC 360 requires component depreciation whenever an asset's parts have materially different useful lives
BNo — US GAAP permits, but does not require, component depreciation for parts of an asset with differing useful lives; a company may instead depreciate the entire plant as a single unit using a composite or blended rate, unlike IFRS's IAS 16, which requires separate depreciation of significant components
CNo, component depreciation is prohibited under US GAAP and may only be used under IFRS
DYes, but only for public companies; private companies are exempt from component depreciation under the private company accounting alternatives
Correct answer: .
Under US GAAP, component depreciation of property, plant, and equipment is permitted but not required: a company may split an asset into significant parts with different useful lives and depreciate each separately, or it may depreciate the whole asset as one unit using a composite rate. IFRS's IAS 16 takes the opposite position, requiring separate depreciation of each significant component with a materially different pattern of consumption or useful life. Option A wrongly states component depreciation as mandatory under US GAAP, which is the IFRS rule, not the GAAP rule. Option C is wrong because component depreciation is not prohibited under US GAAP; it remains an available accounting policy choice. Option D is wrong because no such public/private company distinction exists for component depreciation — the private company accounting alternatives address goodwill amortization, certain intangible assets, and hedge accounting, not PP&E componentization.
Source: US GAAP vs IFRS comparison (PP&E component approach); FASB ASC 360 has no component depreciation requirement
A company is constructing a new headquarters building for its own use, partly funded with a construction loan. Under ASC 835-20, which of the following is NOT one of the three conditions that must be met simultaneously for interest cost to qualify for capitalization during the construction period?
AExpenditures for the asset have been made
BActivities necessary to prepare the asset for its intended use are in progress
CThe asset's total construction cost exceeds a $1 million capitalization threshold
DInterest cost is being incurred
Correct answer: .
ASC 835-20-25-3 requires all three of the following to be met simultaneously before interest cost qualifies for capitalization on a qualifying asset: expenditures for the asset have been made, activities necessary to prepare the asset for its intended use are in progress, and interest cost is being incurred. There is no dollar threshold in the standard — capitalization applies to any qualifying asset meeting the three conditions, regardless of the size of its total construction cost. The choices stating that expenditures have been made, that preparatory activities are in progress, and that interest cost is being incurred are each genuine, correctly stated conditions from ASC 835-20-25-3, so selecting any of them as 'not a condition' would be incorrect since they are exactly the tests the standard requires. The $1 million capitalization-threshold choice is the correct answer precisely because no such threshold rule exists anywhere in ASC 835-20; it is a fabricated condition.
Source: FASB ASC 835-20-25-3 (conditions for capitalization of interest)
A company installs a piece of equipment that it is legally obligated to dismantle and remove at the end of its useful life. The estimated fair value (present value of the future dismantlement cash outflows) of this obligation is $80,000. Under ASC 410-20, how should the company account for this obligation at initial recognition, and how is the liability subsequently increased over time?
ARecognize an $80,000 liability with an offsetting expense in the period incurred; in later periods, increase the liability through interest expense computed at the then-current market rate
BRecognize the $80,000 as a contingent liability disclosed only in the notes until the dismantlement work actually begins
CRecognize an $80,000 liability with an offsetting reduction to additional paid-in capital, since asset retirement obligations are treated as capital transactions
DRecognize an $80,000 asset retirement obligation liability with a corresponding increase to the carrying amount of the related long-lived asset (an asset retirement cost); in later periods, increase the liability through accretion expense, classified as an operating expense rather than interest expense
Correct answer: .
ASC 410-20 requires an entity to recognize the fair value of an asset retirement obligation in the period it is incurred, if a reasonable estimate can be made, with a corresponding increase to the carrying amount of the related long-lived asset as an asset retirement cost, which is then depreciated over the asset's life. In subsequent periods, the liability increases through accretion expense — computed using the credit-adjusted risk-free rate that existed at initial measurement — and this accretion is classified as an operating expense, not interest expense. The option pairing the liability with an immediate expense wrongly expenses the obligation instead of capitalizing it, and wrongly labels the subsequent increase as interest expense at a floating current rate rather than accretion at the fixed historical rate. The option treating this as a note-only contingent liability is wrong because this is not a loss contingency deferred until work begins; it must be recognized when incurred and reasonably estimable. The option offsetting the liability against additional paid-in capital is wrong because an asset retirement obligation is a liability paired with an asset, not an equity transaction routed through paid-in capital.
Source: FASB ASC 410-20-25 and 410-20-35 (recognition and subsequent measurement of asset retirement obligations)
A company has depreciated a machine using the double-declining-balance method since acquisition. Management now determines that the straight-line method better reflects the pattern of the machine's economic benefit and switches methods starting this year. How should this change be accounted for under ASC 250?
AAs a change in accounting principle, requiring retrospective restatement of all prior periods presented as if straight-line had always been used
BAs a correction of an error, requiring restatement of prior period financial statements and disclosure of the error's nature
CAs a change in accounting estimate effected by a change in accounting principle, applied prospectively over the machine's remaining useful life, with no restatement of prior periods
DAs a change in accounting principle for which retrospective application is impracticable, so the cumulative effect is recorded as an adjustment to the opening balance of retained earnings in the earliest period presented
Correct answer: .
ASC 250-10-45-17 specifically classifies a change in the depreciation, amortization, or depletion method for long-lived, nonfinancial assets as a change in accounting estimate effected by a change in accounting principle. Because separating the effect of the revised estimate of the asset's consumption pattern from the effect of adopting a new method is impracticable, the change is accounted for prospectively, like a pure change in estimate, over the asset's remaining useful life, with no restatement of prior periods. The option calling for retrospective restatement of all prior periods applies the general treatment for ordinary changes in accounting principle, which ASC 250 specifically carves depreciation method changes out of. The option treating this as an error correction is wrong because switching from one legitimate depreciation method to another is not a misapplication of GAAP, so error-correction guidance doesn't apply. The option invoking impracticability with a cumulative-effect adjustment to retained earnings describes an exception used for certain principle changes, such as inventory costing methods, when retrospective application genuinely cannot be done — not the rule for depreciation method changes, which are prospective by design, not because retrospective application happens to be impracticable.
Source: FASB ASC 250-10-45-17 (change in accounting estimate effected by a change in accounting principle)
Two companies in unrelated industries exchange plots of undeveloped land. Company X gives up land with a carrying amount of $100,000 and a fair value of $150,000, and receives land from Company Y with a fair value of $150,000. The exchange is expected to significantly change each company's future cash flows because the land received will be used in a substantially different way than the land given up. Under ASC 845, how should Company X account for this exchange?
ARecord the land received at its $150,000 fair value and recognize a $50,000 gain, because the exchange has commercial substance: the economic positions of both parties change and their expected future cash flows differ significantly
BRecord the land received at the lower of the fair value of the asset given up or the asset received, recognizing no gain until the new land is sold to a third party
CRecord the land received at Company X's original carrying amount of $100,000 and recognize no gain, because nonmonetary exchanges are always recorded at the book value of the asset surrendered
DRecord the land received at $150,000 fair value but defer the $50,000 gain and recognize it over the estimated holding period of the new land
Correct answer: .
Under ASC 845-10-30-3, gains and losses on nonmonetary exchanges are recognized unless the fair value of neither asset is determinable, the exchange is of similar inventory to facilitate sales to customers, or the exchange lacks commercial substance. Commercial substance exists when the economic positions of the parties are modified and their expected future cash flows change significantly, which is the case here, so Company X records the land received at its $150,000 fair value and recognizes a $50,000 gain ($150,000 minus the $100,000 carrying amount given up). Option C describes the carryover-basis treatment used only when an exchange lacks commercial substance, not this fact pattern. Option D invents a gain-deferral mechanism with no basis in ASC 845; a recognized gain is recorded at the exchange date, not amortized over a future holding period. Option B invents a 'lower of' measurement approach that is not part of the commercial-substance model, which simply measures at fair value and immediately recognizes the resulting gain or loss.
Source: FASB ASC 845-10-30-3 (recognition of gains and losses on nonmonetary exchanges)
A retailer measures one inventory pool using the FIFO cost method. At year-end, that pool's cost is $500,000 and its net realizable value (estimated selling price less reasonably predictable costs of completion and disposal) is $460,000. A separate division of the same company measures a different inventory pool using the LIFO method. Under ASC 330 as amended by ASU 2015-11, which statement is correct?
ABoth inventory pools must be written down using the lower of cost or net realizable value test, because ASU 2015-11 eliminated all differences in inventory measurement between costing methods
BThe FIFO pool must be written down to $460,000 under the lower of cost and net realizable value test; the LIFO pool remains subject to the older lower of cost or market test, comparing replacement cost to a ceiling of net realizable value and a floor of net realizable value less a normal profit margin
CNeither pool requires any write-down, because lower of cost or market testing was eliminated by ASU 2015-11 and inventory is now always carried at historical cost
DThe FIFO pool is exempt from any write-down testing, because only LIFO and retail-method inventory are subject to impairment testing under ASC 330
Correct answer: .
ASU 2015-11 replaced the lower of cost or market test with the lower of cost and net realizable value test, but only for inventory measured using methods other than LIFO or the retail inventory method, such as FIFO or average cost. Since the FIFO pool's net realizable value of $460,000 is below its $500,000 cost, it must be written down to $460,000. The LIFO pool was specifically carved out of this simplification and continues to apply the older lower of cost or market test, where market is replacement cost bounded by a ceiling of net realizable value and a floor of net realizable value less a normal profit margin. Option A is wrong because ASU 2015-11 did not eliminate all differences between methods; it created a bifurcated model where LIFO and retail-method inventory keep the old test. Option C is wrong because write-down testing was simplified, not eliminated. Option D reverses the rule: FIFO and average-cost pools are the ones using the newer lower-of-cost-and-net-realizable-value test, while LIFO and retail-method inventory keep the older test; neither is exempt from testing altogether.
Source: FASB ASC 330-10-35 as amended by ASU 2015-11 (Simplifying the Measurement of Inventory)
A company classified a building as held for sale on January 1, with a pre-classification carrying amount of $1,000,000 and straight-line depreciation of $60,000 per year. It wrote the building down to its fair value less costs to sell of $880,000, and depreciation ceased while the building was classified as held for sale. On July 1 of the same year, six months later, management abandons the plan to sell and reclassifies the building back to held and used. At that date, the building's fair value is $950,000. Under ASC 360-10-35, at what amount should the building be recorded upon reclassification to held and used?
A$950,000, its current fair value, because assets reclassified out of held for sale are always recorded at the fair value determined on the date of the decision not to sell
B$880,000, the amount at which the building was written down when classified as held for sale, carried forward unchanged since depreciation was suspended during that period
C$1,000,000, the original pre-classification carrying amount, because reclassification to held and used fully reverses the earlier held-for-sale write-down
D$950,000 — the lower of (1) $970,000, the $1,000,000 pre-held-for-sale carrying amount reduced by the $30,000 of depreciation that would have been recognized for the six months had the building remained held and used, and (2) the $950,000 fair value at the date of the decision not to sell
Correct answer: .
ASC 360-10-35-44 requires that when a long-lived asset is reclassified from held for sale back to held and used, it be measured at the lower of (1) its carrying amount before it was classified as held for sale, adjusted for any depreciation or amortization expense that would have been recognized had it remained classified as held and used, or (2) its fair value at the date of the subsequent decision not to sell. Here the adjusted carrying amount is $1,000,000 minus $30,000 of hypothetical six-month depreciation, or $970,000, and fair value is $950,000, so the lower amount, $950,000, is used. The option recording fair value simply because it is the current fair value wrongly treats fair value as an automatic default rather than one side of a required lower-of comparison. The option carrying forward the $880,000 write-down amount unchanged ignores the required remeasurement and the add-back of hypothetical depreciation that the standard mandates upon reclassification. The option restoring the original $1,000,000 is wrong because full reversal to the pre-impairment carrying amount is not permitted; the standard caps any recovery at the depreciation-adjusted carrying amount or fair value, whichever is lower, not an unconditional reset to original cost.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35-44 (measurement upon reclassification from held for sale to held and used)
A company purchases a new production machine for $200,000. It also pays $8,000 for freight to deliver the machine to its factory, $12,000 for installation and testing to confirm the machine performs as intended, and $5,000 to train machine operators on how to use it. Under US GAAP, what is the capitalized cost of the machine?
A$225,000, because all four costs were necessarily incurred as part of bringing the machine into service
B$220,000, because freight, installation, and testing costs are necessary to bring the machine to its intended condition and location for use, while operator training is a cost of operating the asset rather than of acquiring it
C$200,000, because under US GAAP only the negotiated purchase price of an asset may ever be capitalized
D$208,000, because installation and testing costs are treated as repair and maintenance expense, while freight is capitalized as part of acquisition cost
Correct answer: .
Under ASC 360-10-30, the capitalized cost of property, plant, and equipment includes all costs necessarily incurred to bring the asset to the condition and location necessary for its intended use. Freight and installation-and-testing costs meet that test directly: the machine cannot function in its intended location without being delivered, installed, and confirmed to work, so $200,000 plus $8,000 plus $12,000 equals a capitalized cost of $220,000. Operator training is different: the machine itself is already in its intended condition and location once installed and tested, and training addresses how employees operate the completed asset rather than what it takes to get the asset ready — so it is expensed as incurred, matching the general treatment of costs incurred after (or unrelated to) getting the asset into service. The option capitalizing all $225,000 wrongly folds training into acquisition cost. The option capitalizing only the $200,000 purchase price ignores that freight and installation-and-testing costs are squarely part of the cost-to-bring-to-intended-use test and are routinely capitalized. The option capitalizing $208,000 gets the treatment backwards, since installation and testing are exactly the kind of cost the standard requires to be capitalized, not expensed as repairs.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-30 (initial measurement of property, plant, and equipment — costs necessary to bring an asset to the condition and location necessary for its intended use)
Two regional grocery chains, Company M and Company N, each hold perishable inventory for sale in the ordinary course of business. To cover a temporary regional shortage, they exchange truckloads of a product with each other, each intending to resell the received inventory to its own customers rather than to the counterparty. Company M gives up inventory with a carrying amount of $40,000 and a fair value of $52,000, receiving inventory with a fair value of $52,000 from Company N. Even though the exchange otherwise has commercial substance, how should Company M account for the inventory it receives under ASC 845?
ARecord the inventory received at its $52,000 fair value and recognize a $12,000 gain, because gains are always recognized whenever an exchange has commercial substance
BRecord the inventory received at its $52,000 fair value but defer the $12,000 gain until the inventory is resold to end customers
CRecord the inventory received at $40,000 (Company M's carrying amount for the inventory given up), but disclose the $12,000 unrecognized gain in the notes to the financial statements
DRecord the inventory received at $40,000, Company M's carrying amount for the inventory given up, and recognize no gain, because ASC 845-10-30-3(b) carves out exchanges of inventory held for sale in the ordinary course of business for inventory to be sold in the same line of business to facilitate sales to customers other than the parties to the exchange
Correct answer: .
ASC 845-10-30-3 lists specific exceptions to the general rule that nonmonetary exchanges are recorded at fair value with a gain or loss recognized. One exception, in ASC 845-10-30-3(b), applies when the exchange is of a product held for sale in the ordinary course of business for a product to be sold in the same line of business, to facilitate sales to customers other than the parties to the exchange — exactly this fact pattern, since each grocery chain is swapping inventory to resell to its own customers rather than to the counterparty. That exception applies regardless of whether the exchange otherwise has commercial substance, so the inventory received is recorded at Company M's own carryover cost of $40,000 and no gain is recognized. The option recognizing a $12,000 gain misapplies the general commercial-substance rule without accounting for this specific carve-out. The option deferring the gain until resale invents a deferral mechanism that ASC 845 does not use; the standard's exception simply results in carryover basis, not a deferred gain that surfaces later. The option recording carryover basis but requiring note disclosure of an 'unrecognized gain' fabricates a disclosure requirement; under carryover-basis treatment there is no gain to disclose because none is measured or recognized in the first place.
Source: FASB ASC 845-10-30-3(b) and 845-10-30-16 (exchange of inventory in the same line of business to facilitate sales to customers)
A warehouse with a carrying amount of $300,000 is destroyed by fire. The company's insurer pays out $380,000 in cash. At the time the proceeds are received, management has not yet decided whether it will rebuild the warehouse or use the proceeds for another purpose. Under ASC 610-30, how should the $80,000 excess of the insurance proceeds over the warehouse's carrying amount be treated?
ARecognized immediately as an $80,000 gain, because the destruction of the asset and the receipt of monetary proceeds are treated as two separate accounting events, and gain recognition does not depend on management's intent to replace the asset
BDeferred and recognized only if and when the company later decides not to rebuild the warehouse
CRecorded as a reduction of the cost basis of any replacement warehouse the company later constructs, with no gain recognized in the current period
DRecognized as a gain only to the extent the company can show it will not reinvest the proceeds within a specified replacement period
Correct answer: .
Under ASC 610-30, an involuntary conversion of a nonmonetary asset (the warehouse) into a monetary asset (insurance proceeds) is measured as the difference between the carrying amount of the asset lost and the amount of monetary assets received, and any resulting gain or loss is recognized immediately. The loss of the asset and the recovery through insurance proceeds are treated as two separate events and two separate units of account, so the $80,000 excess is recognized as a gain in the period the proceeds become fixed and determinable, independent of whatever management ultimately decides to do with the cash. The option deferring recognition until a decision not to rebuild confuses financial accounting with a business decision that has no bearing on when the gain is realized and measurable. The option treating the excess as a reduction of a future replacement asset's cost basis describes a tax-deferral-style mechanism, not US GAAP, which does not carry forward unrecognized gains into the basis of a not-yet-acquired asset. The option conditioning gain recognition on a reinvestment replacement period describes the deferral available under tax law for involuntary conversions (Internal Revenue Code Section 1033), which governs taxable income, not financial statement gain recognition under US GAAP.
Source: FASB ASC 610-30 (involuntary conversions — gains and losses from the derecognition of nonfinancial assets)
A retail chain operates two adjacent stores inside the same shopping mall: a general-merchandise store and a specialty store. The two stores share a single loading dock and point-of-sale/inventory system, run combined promotions, and draw on shared inventory pools, so their cash inflows are not separately identifiable from each other. For purposes of testing leasehold improvements in the general-merchandise store for impairment under ASC 360, at what level should the company group its long-lived assets?
AThe general-merchandise store's assets and liabilities alone, because each individual store location is always its own asset group under ASC 360
BThe retail chain's assets and liabilities as a whole, because ASC 360 always requires impairment testing at the entity-wide level
CThe general-merchandise store and the specialty store together, because ASC 360-10-35-23 requires long-lived assets to be grouped at the lowest level for which identifiable cash flows are largely independent of the cash flows of other assets and liabilities, and here the two stores' cash flows are not independent of one another
DWhatever grouping management uses for its internal management reporting, because ASC 360 defers entirely to how a company organizes its internal segment reports
Correct answer: .
ASC 360-10-35-23 requires a long-lived asset to be grouped with other assets and liabilities at the lowest level for which identifiable cash flows are largely independent of the cash flows of other assets and liabilities, for purposes of recognizing and measuring an impairment loss. Here the two stores share a loading dock, a combined point-of-sale and inventory system, joint promotions, and shared inventory pools, so their cash inflows cannot be separated from each other — the lowest level with largely independent cash flows is the two stores combined, not either store alone. The option treating each store as automatically its own asset group ignores the facts given and the standard's cash-flow-independence test, which can require combining locations when their cash flows are intertwined. The option requiring entity-wide grouping in all cases overstates the rule; entity-wide grouping is reserved for the limited situation (such as a corporate headquarters) where an asset has no identifiable cash flows independent of the whole entity, not a general default. The option deferring to internal management reporting invents a rule that does not exist in ASC 360; segment structure may inform the analysis but is not itself the determinative test — the cash-flow-independence criterion is.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35-23 (grouping of long-lived assets for impairment testing)
In March, a manufacturer commits to a plan to abandon a production line by year end because it has become technologically obsolete. The equipment will simply be scrapped when abandoned — there is no plan to sell or exchange it. The equipment remains in active use, producing output, throughout the eight months between the commitment date and the actual abandonment. Under ASC 360-10-35-47, may the equipment be classified as held for sale during those eight months, and how is depreciation handled?
AYes, the equipment must be reclassified as held for sale as soon as the abandonment plan is committed, and depreciation ceases immediately upon that commitment
BNo — a long-lived asset to be abandoned continues to be classified as held and used until it is actually disposed of (that is, until it ceases to be used); depreciation continues, but the useful life estimate is revised to reflect the shortened remaining period of use
CYes, because committing to a plan to abandon an asset is treated identically to committing to a plan to sell it under ASC 360-10-45-9
DNo, the equipment remains classified as held and used, but depreciation is suspended from the commitment date because the asset is no longer expected to generate future benefits
Correct answer: .
ASC 360-10-35-47 provides that a long-lived asset to be disposed of other than by sale — including by abandonment — continues to be classified as held and used until it is actually disposed of, which for an abandoned asset means until it ceases to be used. Because the equipment here keeps operating for eight months after the commitment date, it stays held and used and continues to be depreciated throughout that period; what changes is that the company must revise its useful life and depreciation estimate to reflect the now-shortened remaining period the equipment will actually be used, consistent with the general principle that a change in estimated useful life is accounted for prospectively. The option requiring immediate reclassification to held for sale and immediate cessation of depreciation wrongly applies the held-for-sale model, which under ASC 360-10-45-9 requires criteria such as being available for immediate sale and actively marketed — criteria that make no sense for an asset that will simply be scrapped in place while still operating. The option equating an abandonment commitment with a sale commitment ignores that ASC 360 explicitly treats disposal by abandonment differently from disposal by sale; held-for-sale classification is reserved for assets meeting the sale-specific criteria. The option suspending depreciation while keeping the asset held and used contradicts the standard: depreciation continues over the revised, shortened useful life precisely because the asset remains in productive use until abandonment.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35-47 (long-lived assets to be disposed of other than by sale, including abandonment)
A company believes that its strong brand reputation, loyal customer base, and skilled workforce — built up internally over twenty years and never acquired in a business combination — give the business an overall value well above the fair value of its identifiable net assets. May the company recognize this excess value as goodwill on its balance sheet?
AYes, if an independent valuation firm can reliably estimate the excess value attributable to these internally developed factors
BYes, but only if the excess value has persisted for at least three consecutive fiscal years, demonstrating that it is not transitory
CNo — under US GAAP, goodwill is recognized only as a residual amount in a business combination accounted for under the acquisition method; internally generated goodwill may never be capitalized, no matter how reliably its value can be estimated
DNo, unless the company first reorganizes as a holding company and acquires its own operating subsidiary in a transaction accounted for as a business combination
Correct answer: .
Under US GAAP, goodwill is recognized only as a residual: the excess of consideration transferred (plus other specified amounts) over the fair value of identifiable net assets acquired in a business combination accounted for under the acquisition method in ASC 805, with the resulting amount reported under ASC 350-20. Internally generated goodwill — value built up over time through brand reputation, customer loyalty, or workforce quality without any acquisition transaction — is never capitalized, because there is no arm's-length exchange transaction establishing a reliable, verifiable measurement event; the related costs (advertising, training, and similar internal-development spending) are simply expensed as incurred. The option allowing capitalization if a valuation firm can reliably estimate the value is wrong because reliability of estimation is not the barrier — the prohibition applies regardless of measurement reliability, since no qualifying transaction ever occurred. The option requiring three years of persistence invents a durability test that appears nowhere in ASC 350-20. The option suggesting a self-acquisition reorganization as a workaround describes a contrived transaction lacking economic substance; restructuring solely to manufacture a technical 'business combination' would not create the substantive change in ownership and control that goodwill recognition is meant to reflect.
Source: FASB ASC 350-20-25 and ASC 805 (goodwill recognized only as a residual in a business combination under the acquisition method)
A company is developing new software solely for its own internal use in payroll processing. In the first two months, its team evaluates alternative technologies and determines performance and system requirements, and no decision to proceed has yet been approved by management. In months three through eight, management authorizes funding and commits to completing the project, and the team performs coding, installation, and testing before the software goes live in month nine. Under the cost capitalization framework in ASC 350-40 (as in effect before ASU 2025-06's later removal of the stage-based model, effective for fiscal years beginning after December 15, 2027), how should the costs incurred in the first two months and in months three through eight, respectively, be treated?
ACosts in the first two months (the preliminary project stage) are expensed as incurred; costs in months three through eight (the application development stage) are capitalized
BCosts in both stages are capitalized, because all costs incurred on a specifically identified internal-use software project are capitalizable once the project has begun
CCosts in the first two months are capitalized as preliminary feasibility costs, while costs in months three through eight are expensed as ordinary maintenance
DCosts in both stages are expensed as incurred, because internal-use software costs are capitalized only once the software is placed into service in month nine
Correct answer: .
ASC 350-40 (in its stage-based form, still the effective model as of the 2026-27 fiscal years, before ASU 2025-06 removes it for fiscal years beginning after December 15, 2027) divides internal-use software development into stages with different cost treatments. During the preliminary project stage — evaluating alternatives and determining performance and system requirements, with no management commitment yet — activities resemble research and development, so all costs are expensed as incurred. Once management with appropriate authority authorizes and commits to funding the project, the entity enters the application development stage, and internal and external direct costs of coding, installation, and testing incurred from that point are capitalized. Here the first two months fall squarely in the preliminary stage (expensed) and months three through eight fall in the application development stage (capitalized). The option capitalizing both stages ignores the preliminary stage's R&D-like treatment. The option reversing the two stages' treatment — capitalizing preliminary costs and expensing application development costs as 'maintenance' — inverts the rule entirely. The option expensing everything until go-live ignores that capitalization begins with management's authorization and commitment during the application development stage, not at the software's in-service date.
Source: FASB ASC 350-40-25 (costs of software developed or obtained for internal use — preliminary project stage and application development stage), noting ASU 2025-06's later removal of this stage-based model
A software company is developing a new application it plans to sell to external customers. It incurs coding and testing costs before completing a detailed program design and a working model confirmed to meet the product's design specifications, and it incurs further coding and testing costs after that point, up until the product is made available for general release. Under ASC 985-20, how should each set of costs be treated?
ABoth sets of costs are capitalized, because all software development costs are capitalizable once a company has committed to building a product it intends to sell
BBoth sets of costs are expensed as incurred and treated as research and development, because software marketed to external customers is never eligible for cost capitalization
CCosts incurred before technological feasibility is established are capitalized as an intangible asset, while costs incurred after technological feasibility is established are expensed as cost of goods sold
DCosts incurred before technological feasibility is established are expensed as research and development; costs incurred after technological feasibility is established, up to general release, are capitalized
Correct answer: .
ASC 985-20-25 requires that all costs incurred before a software product intended to be sold, leased, or otherwise marketed reaches technological feasibility be expensed as incurred as research and development. Technological feasibility is established once the entity has completed all the planning, designing, coding, and testing necessary to confirm the product can be produced to meet its design specifications, including functions, features, and technical performance. Costs incurred after that point, through the point the product is available for general release to customers, are capitalized as an intangible asset. Here the costs before the design and working model were confirmed are R&D expense, and the costs afterward, up to general release, are capitalized. The option capitalizing both sets of costs ignores the technological-feasibility trigger entirely. The option expensing both sets ignores that ASC 985-20 explicitly permits capitalization after feasibility is reached. The option reversing the treatment — capitalizing pre-feasibility costs and expensing post-feasibility costs as cost of goods sold — inverts the standard's trigger point and mischaracterizes ongoing capitalized development costs as a cost-of-sales item, which they are not until the software is actually sold.
Source: FASB ASC 985-20-25-1 and 25-2 (research and development costs for computer software to be sold, leased, or otherwise marketed — technological feasibility)
A company pays $10 million cash to acquire an office building, the land beneath it, and the building's outstanding tenant leases from a seller. The acquired set of assets does not meet the definition of a business under ASC 805 (no substantive processes or workforce are transferred). The fair values of the land, the building, and the in-place lease intangible are $4 million, $5 million, and $1.5 million respectively, totaling $10.5 million, which exceeds the $10 million price paid. Under ASC 805-50, how should the company account for this acquisition?
ARecognize the land, building, and lease intangible at their $4 million, $5 million, and $1.5 million fair values, and recognize a $0.5 million bargain purchase gain for the excess of fair value over cost
BAllocate the $10 million cost to the land, building, and lease intangible based on their relative fair values, with no goodwill or bargain purchase gain recognized, because an asset acquisition uses a cost accumulation model rather than a fair value model
CRecognize goodwill of $0.5 million as a plug to reconcile the fair values of the identifiable assets to the amount actually paid
DRecognize the assets at their full $4 million, $5 million, and $1.5 million fair values and record the $0.5 million difference as a reduction of additional paid-in capital
Correct answer: .
ASC 805-50-30-3 requires that when a group of assets acquired does not constitute a business, the cost of the group is allocated to the individual assets acquired based on their relative fair values, and no goodwill is recognized. This reflects the cost accumulation model used for asset acquisitions, under which the transaction is recorded at the cost actually incurred rather than at the fair value model used for business combinations under ASC 805-30. Here, the $10 million cost is allocated across the land, building, and lease intangible in proportion to their $4 million, $5 million, and $1.5 million fair values, and the $0.5 million excess of aggregate fair value over cost paid simply reduces each asset's recorded amount pro rata — it is not recognized as a separate gain or as goodwill. The option recording full fair values and a bargain purchase gain applies business-combination accounting (ASC 805-30), which does not apply here because no business was acquired. The option recognizing $0.5 million of goodwill as a plug is wrong because goodwill can arise only in a business combination, never in an asset acquisition. The option recording full fair values and routing the difference through additional paid-in capital fabricates an equity adjustment that has no basis in the asset-acquisition cost accumulation model.
Source: FASB ASC 805-50-30-3 (allocating the cost of a group of assets acquired that does not constitute a business, based on relative fair values)
A reporting unit carries goodwill among its net assets. At the annual testing date, management performs a qualitative assessment of relevant events and circumstances — industry and macroeconomic conditions, the reporting unit's own financial performance, and other factors — and concludes it is not more likely than not that the reporting unit's fair value is less than its carrying amount. Under ASC 350-20-35-3A, is the company still required to perform the quantitative goodwill impairment test comparing the reporting unit's fair value to its carrying amount this year?
ANo — the qualitative assessment is optional, but once performed and concluding that impairment is not more likely than not, it allows the company to bypass the quantitative test for that reporting unit for that period
BYes, the qualitative assessment is only a preliminary screen, and the quantitative test must still be performed every year regardless of its conclusion
CNo, but only if the company also performed and passed the same qualitative assessment in each of the two preceding years
DYes, unless the reporting unit's goodwill balance falls below a de minimis dollar threshold set by the FASB, in which case testing is waived entirely
Correct answer: .
ASC 350-20-35-3A gives an entity the option, for any reporting unit in any period, to first assess qualitative factors to determine whether it is more likely than not (a likelihood of more than fifty percent) that a reporting unit's fair value is less than its carrying amount. If that qualitative assessment concludes it is not more likely than not, the entity may stop there and is not required to perform the quantitative fair-value-to-carrying-amount comparison for that reporting unit that period. This qualitative bypass is unconditional and available in any period regardless of whether the entity used the quantitative test in a prior year, and it can be resumed or dropped from year to year. The option requiring the quantitative test every year regardless of the qualitative conclusion contradicts the entire purpose of the qualitative screen, which exists precisely to let a company skip the quantitative test when warranted. The option requiring two consecutive prior years of passing the qualitative assessment invents a track-record condition that does not appear anywhere in ASC 350-20. The option waiving testing below a FASB-set dollar threshold is fabricated; no such de minimis exemption exists — the standard's mechanism is the qualitative-factors assessment, not a dollar-based waiver.
A company is constructing a qualifying asset. Its weighted-average accumulated expenditures for the period are $2,000,000. It has a specific construction loan of $1,200,000 outstanding at a 6% interest rate, and other general outstanding debt at a weighted-average rate of 8%. Total interest cost actually incurred by the company during the period, across all of its debt, is $150,000. Under ASC 835-20, how is the avoidable interest to be capitalized this period computed and limited?
AAvoidable interest equals the full $150,000 of interest actually incurred, because ASC 835-20 requires capitalizing all interest cost incurred during a period in which a qualifying asset is under construction
BAvoidable interest equals $2,000,000 multiplied by the 8% weighted-average rate on general debt, applied to the entire weighted-average accumulated expenditures balance, with no consideration of the specific construction loan
CAvoidable interest equals $2,000,000 multiplied by a single blended rate combining the 6% and 8% rates without regard to which portion of expenditures is covered by the specific borrowing, and the result is not subject to any ceiling
DAvoidable interest equals the 6% specific-borrowing rate applied to $1,200,000 of the weighted-average accumulated expenditures, plus the 8% weighted-average rate on general debt applied to the remaining $800,000, with the resulting amount capped at the $150,000 of interest actually incurred during the period
Correct answer: .
ASC 835-20-30 computes avoidable interest — the interest that theoretically could have been avoided if the expenditures on the qualifying asset had not been made — by applying a capitalization rate to weighted-average accumulated expenditures (WAAE). The rate hierarchy gives priority to any borrowing specifically incurred to finance the asset: the specific borrowing's rate is applied first, to the portion of WAAE up to the amount of that specific borrowing, and the weighted-average rate on the entity's other (general) outstanding debt is applied to any remaining WAAE in excess of the specific borrowing. Here that is $1,200,000 at 6% plus the remaining $800,000 at 8%. Whatever the computed avoidable interest amount is, it can never exceed the total interest cost the entity actually incurred during the period — that ceiling exists because a company cannot capitalize more interest than it truly paid or accrued. The option capitalizing the full $150,000 regardless of computation ignores the avoidable-interest concept entirely and treats capitalization as automatic rather than computed. The option applying only the general 8% rate to the entire WAAE ignores the required priority given to the specific construction borrowing's own rate for the portion of expenditures it covers. The option using an undifferentiated blended rate with no ceiling both invents an incorrect blending methodology and omits the mandatory cap against actual interest incurred.
Source: FASB ASC 835-20-30 (determining the capitalization rate and computing avoidable interest, including the ceiling on capitalized interest)
A company owns a fleet delivery truck. During the year, it spends $500 on an oil change and tire replacement to keep the truck operating as originally intended, and separately spends $15,000 to replace the truck's engine with a new, higher-capacity engine that extends the truck's total useful life by three years and increases its towing capacity beyond the original specification. Under US GAAP, how should each expenditure be treated?
ABoth expenditures are capitalized, because any cost incurred to maintain or improve an asset already in service is added to its carrying amount
BBoth expenditures are expensed as incurred, because costs incurred after an asset is placed into service are always period costs under US GAAP
CThe $500 in routine maintenance is expensed as incurred, because it merely maintains the truck's originally intended service potential, while the $15,000 engine replacement is capitalized, because it extends the truck's useful life and increases its capacity beyond the original condition
DThe $500 in routine maintenance is capitalized because it is necessary to keep the asset functional, while the $15,000 engine replacement is expensed because it replaces rather than adds to the existing asset
Correct answer: .
Under US GAAP's general principle for subsequent expenditures on property, plant, and equipment, costs that merely maintain an asset's originally intended level of service — ordinary repairs and maintenance such as an oil change and tire replacement — are expensed as incurred, because they do not add future economic benefit beyond what the asset already provided. Costs that extend an asset's useful life, increase its capacity, or improve its efficiency beyond its original condition are capitalized as betterments, because they create additional future economic benefit. The $15,000 engine replacement does both: it extends the truck's useful life by three years and increases its towing capacity beyond the original specification, so it is capitalized (typically with any remaining carrying amount of the replaced engine derecognized). The option capitalizing both expenditures ignores the routine-maintenance exception and would overstate the asset's carrying amount with costs that create no incremental benefit. The option expensing both expenditures ignores that betterments extending useful life or capacity are specifically capitalized, not treated as automatic period costs just because the asset is already in service. The option reversing the treatment — capitalizing routine maintenance and expensing the betterment — inverts the standard distinction between maintaining existing service potential (expense) and enhancing it (capitalize).
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-30 (subsequent costs — repairs and maintenance versus betterments/improvements to property, plant, and equipment)
A company purchases a parcel of land for $500,000 to serve as the site for a new retail store. It also pays $60,000 to install a paved parking lot, $15,000 for a perimeter fence, and $8,000 for landscaping with defined-life plantings, each expected to need replacement or major resurfacing within 15-20 years. Under US GAAP, how should the company account for these costs?
ACapitalize all $583,000 to the Land account, since land and everything attached to it while it is being prepared for its intended use are treated as one indivisible depreciable asset
BCapitalize the $500,000 land cost to Land, and expense the $83,000 of paving, fencing, and landscaping costs immediately, because these do not add value beyond the land's existing indefinite utility
CCapitalize the $500,000 land cost to Land, which is never depreciated because it has an indefinite life, and capitalize the $83,000 of paving, fencing, and landscaping costs to a separate Land Improvements account, depreciated over each improvement's own limited estimated useful life
DCapitalize the $500,000 land cost to Land and depreciate it over the same useful life as the retail store built on it, since land used for a specific business purpose loses its indefinite-life character
Correct answer: .
Land is presumed to have an indefinite useful life and is therefore never depreciated under US GAAP, so its $500,000 cost stays in the Land account permanently. Site additions attached to the land that have their own limited useful lives — such as paving, fencing, and plantings that will need resurfacing or replacement within a couple of decades — are recorded separately in a Land Improvements account and depreciated over each improvement's own estimated life, because they do not share land's indefinite-life characteristic. Treating the entire $583,000 as one indivisible depreciable asset ignores that land itself has no determinable useful life to depreciate over, while the improvements clearly do. Expensing the $83,000 of improvement costs immediately is wrong because these expenditures provide multi-period benefit and meet the capitalization criteria for a long-lived asset; there is no basis for treating durable site improvements as a current-period cost merely because they sit on indefinite-lived land. Depreciating the land itself over the building's useful life confuses the building (a depreciable asset) with the land beneath it, which retains its indefinite life regardless of what is built on it or how the site is used.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35 (depreciation of property, plant, and equipment) and general US GAAP practice guidance distinguishing land (indefinite life, not depreciated) from land improvements (limited life, depreciated separately)
A company purchases a stamping machine for $220,000 with an estimated salvage value of $20,000. Management estimates the machine will produce 400,000 units over its useful life. During its first year of use, the machine produces 50,000 units. Under the units-of-production depreciation method, what depreciation expense should be recognized for the first year?
A$25,000, computed by dividing the $200,000 depreciable base (cost less salvage value) by the 400,000 total estimated units to get a $0.50 per-unit rate, then multiplying by the 50,000 units actually produced in the first year
B$27,500, computed by dividing the full $220,000 cost, without deducting salvage value, by the 400,000 total estimated units, then multiplying by the 50,000 units produced
C$55,000, computed by dividing the $220,000 cost by the machine's estimated useful life in years rather than by total estimated units, then applying that annual amount to the units produced
D$20,000, the estimated salvage value, recognized as depreciation expense in the first year because the units-of-production method front-loads expense recognition relative to the straight-line method
Correct answer: .
The units-of-production method allocates an asset's depreciable base — cost minus estimated salvage value — over its total estimated units of output, producing a constant per-unit depreciation rate that is then applied to actual output each period. Here the depreciable base is $220,000 minus $20,000, or $200,000, divided by 400,000 total estimated units, giving a rate of $0.50 per unit; applying that rate to the 50,000 units produced in the first year gives $25,000 of depreciation expense. Using the full $220,000 cost without subtracting salvage value overstates the depreciable base and ignores that GAAP depreciation methods systematically exclude the amount expected to be recovered at disposal. Dividing cost by useful life in years mixes up the units-of-production method, which is driven by output, with the straight-line method, which is driven by the passage of time, producing a nonsensical annual figure applied against unit output. Treating the $20,000 salvage value itself as the depreciation expense misunderstands what salvage value represents: it is the estimated residual amount excluded from depreciation, not an expense to be recognized, and the units-of-production method does not front-load expense the way a declining-balance method does.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35-4 (depreciation methods should be systematic and rational, including units-of-production, applied over the depreciable base net of estimated salvage value)
A company has depreciated a piece of equipment on a straight-line basis, originally estimating a 10-year useful life and no salvage value. At the start of year 6, based on updated maintenance and usage data, management revises its estimate of the equipment's remaining useful life to 3 additional years (rather than the 5 originally remaining) and revises its salvage value estimate to $9,000. Under US GAAP, how should this revision be accounted for?
ARetrospectively, by restating the depreciation expense reported in each of the first five years as if the revised 3-year remaining life and $9,000 salvage value had been used from the date of acquisition
BAs a correction of an error, requiring a prior-period adjustment to beginning retained earnings for the cumulative effect of the difference between the depreciation actually recorded and the amount that would have been recorded under the revised estimate
CBy recognizing a cumulative catch-up adjustment in the current period's income statement for the difference between total depreciation recorded to date and the amount that would have been recorded under the revised estimate, with no change to future depreciation
DProspectively, as a change in accounting estimate: the equipment's remaining undepreciated cost, less the revised $9,000 salvage value, is spread over the revised 3-year remaining useful life, with no restatement of prior periods
Correct answer: .
A revision of an asset's estimated useful life or salvage value is a change in accounting estimate, not the correction of an error and not a retrospective restatement event, because the original estimates were reasonable when made and the revision simply reflects new information about the asset's remaining service potential. ASC 250-10-45-17 requires changes in accounting estimate to be accounted for prospectively: the equipment's remaining undepreciated cost at the start of year 6, reduced by the revised $9,000 salvage value, is spread evenly over the newly estimated 3-year remaining life, and depreciation already recorded in years 1 through 5 is left untouched. Restating the first five years' depreciation as if the new estimate had applied from acquisition improperly treats an estimate change as if it were a retrospective accounting policy change. Treating this as an error correction with a retained-earnings adjustment is wrong because nothing about the original 10-year, no-salvage estimate was mistaken at the time it was made — it simply reflects updated information now, which is the defining feature of an estimate change rather than an error. A one-time cumulative catch-up recognized entirely in the current period's income statement is also incorrect, since prospective treatment spreads the adjusted remaining cost over the remaining periods rather than dumping the full effect into a single year.
Source: FASB ASC 250-10-45-17 (changes in accounting estimate, including useful life and salvage value of a depreciable asset, accounted for prospectively)
A fire destroys a company's warehouse, which had a carrying amount of $600,000. At the balance sheet date shortly after the fire, the company's insurance claim is still under negotiation, and the eventual insurance recovery amount is neither fixed nor determinable. Under US GAAP, how should the company account for the destroyed warehouse at that balance sheet date?
ARecognize no loss yet, since the loss recognized on an involuntary conversion is the net of the asset's carrying amount and the insurance proceeds, and that net amount cannot be computed until the recovery is fixed and determinable
BRecognize a $600,000 loss for the destroyed warehouse's full carrying amount, because the loss on an involuntary conversion is recognized when incurred without regard to the timing or amount of any expected insurance recovery, which is a separate unit of account recognized only once it becomes fixed and determinable
CDefer recognizing any loss until the fiscal year in which the insurance claim is settled, matching the loss and the eventual recovery in the same period for a more accurate presentation
DRecognize a loss equal to the $600,000 carrying amount only if management believes the eventual insurance recovery will be less than that amount, based on a preliminary claims-adjuster estimate
Correct answer: .
Under the involuntary-conversion guidance in ASC 610-30, the loss on a destroyed nonmonetary asset and any insurance recovery are treated as two separate events, each its own unit of account, rather than being netted together as a single transaction. The loss equal to the asset's full carrying amount is recognized when the destruction occurs, regardless of whether, when, or how much insurance will eventually be recovered; the recovery itself is recognized separately, only once it becomes fixed and determinable, such as through final acceptance and approval from the insurer. Waiting to recognize any loss until the recovery amount is known incorrectly treats the loss as if it were the net result of a single combined calculation, which is precisely the netting the two-events principle rejects. Deferring the loss to match it with the eventual recovery in the same period misapplies a matching notion that does not govern involuntary conversions under this guidance; the destruction and the recovery are recognized in whatever periods each becomes determinable, which will often differ. Making loss recognition conditional on management's belief about whether the recovery will fall short of carrying amount is also wrong, since the loss on the destroyed asset is recognized in full immediately and independently of any expectation about the insurance outcome.
Source: FASB ASC 610-30 (involuntary conversions: loss recognized when incurred, without regard to the timing of an insurance recovery, which is recognized as a separate unit of account once fixed and determinable)
A for-profit industrial developer donates a parcel of land with a fair value of $300,000 to a manufacturing company to induce it to build a new plant nearby, attaching no conditions to the transfer and expecting nothing in return. Under US GAAP, how should the manufacturing company account for the land received?
ADo not recognize the land or any income at all until the company actually breaks ground on construction, since only conditional contributions may ever be recognized under US GAAP
BRecord the land at the developer's own carrying amount for the parcel, which may be unknown to the manufacturing company, with the offsetting credit recorded directly in additional paid-in capital
CRecord the land at its $300,000 fair value with a corresponding contribution revenue or gain recognized immediately, because contribution accounting under ASC 958-605, as clarified by ASU 2018-08 to apply to all entities and not only not-for-profit organizations, requires an unconditional contribution to be recognized in full in the period received
DRecord the land at its $300,000 fair value, but defer recognizing any revenue or gain and instead amortize it into income over the new plant's useful life, matching the timing of the benefit the donation is meant to encourage
Correct answer: .
ASU 2018-08 clarified the scope of ASC 958-605 so that its contribution-accounting guidance applies to any entity that receives a contribution, not solely to not-for-profit organizations, which is a frequently missed point since the guidance is filed under the 'Not-for-Profit Entities' topic. Because the developer attached no conditions to the land transfer and expects nothing in return, the transfer is an unconditional contribution, which ASC 958-605 requires to be recognized in full — at the $300,000 fair value of the asset received, with an offsetting contribution revenue or gain — in the period the contribution is received, not deferred to a later triggering event. Withholding recognition until construction begins wrongly assumes recognition can never occur for anything but a conditional contribution; here the transfer is unconditional, which is exactly the case the standard requires recognizing immediately. Recording the land at the donor's own carrying amount, with a credit to paid-in capital, misapplies equity-transaction accounting that has no relevance to a nonreciprocal gift between unrelated parties. Amortizing the contribution into income over the plant's useful life invents a deferral mechanism that unconditional-contribution accounting does not use; deferral of recognition is reserved for contributions that remain conditional.
Source: FASB ASC 958-605-25-1 and 958-605-30-2 (recognition and measurement of contributions received, including the ASU 2018-08 scope clarification that this guidance applies to all entities, not only not-for-profit entities)
A company holds a patent with a remaining carrying amount of $150,000. A competitor infringes on the patent, and the company incurs $40,000 in legal fees successfully defending its right to the patent in court, with the favorable ruling clearly establishing an increase in the patent's future economic benefit. In a separate, unrelated matter the same year, the company incurs $25,000 in legal fees unsuccessfully defending a different patent against an invalidity challenge, and that other patent is cancelled as a result. Under US GAAP, how should the company account for these two sets of legal costs?
ACapitalize the $40,000 of successful-defense legal costs, added to the first patent's carrying amount to the extent the defense evidently increased its value, and expense the $25,000 of unsuccessful-defense legal costs immediately, writing off the remaining carrying amount of the cancelled patent as a loss at the same time
BExpense both sets of legal costs immediately as incurred, because costs to defend intangible assets, win or lose, are always treated as period costs rather than added to an asset's carrying amount
CCapitalize both sets of legal costs, because litigation costs incurred to protect a recognized intangible asset are always added to that asset's carrying amount regardless of the outcome of the litigation
DCapitalize the $25,000 of unsuccessful-defense legal costs, since the effort was made to preserve an asset, and expense the $40,000 of successful-defense legal costs immediately, since a favorable outcome merely confirms a right the company already owned rather than representing a new cost of that right
Correct answer: .
Under ASC 350-30, the accounting treatment of costs to legally defend an intangible asset turns on the outcome of the litigation. A successful defense that clearly establishes an increase in the asset's future economic benefit supports capitalizing the associated legal costs, added to the patent's carrying amount, to the extent that increase in value is evident, since the defense preserved and confirmed a benefit the company can now be confident of realizing. An unsuccessful defense, by contrast, signals that the asset's value is impaired or that the right no longer exists as believed, so the related legal costs are expensed immediately, and here the remaining carrying amount of the cancelled patent must also be written off as a loss since the patent itself no longer has enforceable value. Expensing both outcomes identically ignores the outcome-dependent distinction the standard draws and treats a value-confirming successful defense the same as a value-destroying loss. Capitalizing both regardless of outcome wrongly assumes litigation cost capitalization is automatic rather than contingent on a favorable, value-increasing result. Reversing the treatment — capitalizing the losing case's costs while expensing the winning case's costs — inverts the rule entirely, since it is the successful outcome that evidences increased value worth capitalizing, not the unsuccessful one.
Source: FASB ASC 350-30-25 (costs incurred to defend an intangible asset: capitalized to the extent of an evident value increase if the defense is successful; expensed, along with any impaired carrying amount, if unsuccessful)
A company uses the composite depreciation method for a group of dissimilar machines, applying a single composite depreciation rate to the group's total cost rather than tracking each machine's accumulated depreciation individually. One machine in the group, with an original cost of $50,000, is sold during the year for $12,000 cash. Under US GAAP, how should the company record this retirement?
ADebit Cash for $12,000, debit Loss on Disposal for $38,000, and credit the asset account for $50,000, recognizing the full shortfall between the sale proceeds and original cost as a loss in earnings
BDebit Cash for $12,000 and credit Gain on Disposal for $12,000, since composite depreciation defers gain recognition on individual retirements until the entire asset group is eventually retired
CDebit Cash for $12,000, debit the asset account for the machine's individually tracked accumulated depreciation, and credit the asset account for $50,000, computing and recognizing whatever gain or loss results from comparing proceeds to the machine's own carrying amount
DDebit Cash for $12,000, debit Accumulated Depreciation for the $38,000 difference between the machine's $50,000 cost and the cash received, and credit the asset account for the full $50,000 cost, recognizing no gain or loss on the retirement
Correct answer: .
Under the composite (or group) depreciation method, individual assets within the group do not have their own separately tracked accumulated depreciation, because the method deliberately depreciates the pooled cost of dissimilar assets at one blended rate to simplify recordkeeping and smooth out over- or under-depreciation across the group. When an individual asset is retired in the ordinary course, US GAAP practice for this method removes the asset's full original cost from the asset account, records the cash or other consideration received, and plugs any difference to Accumulated Depreciation, recognizing no gain or loss in earnings on the retirement — here, Cash for $12,000, Accumulated Depreciation for the $38,000 difference, and the asset account credited for the full $50,000. Recognizing a $38,000 loss in earnings improperly applies individual-asset retirement accounting to a method that is specifically designed to avoid that outcome for ordinary dispositions. Recognizing a $12,000 gain equal to the cash received is not how any disposal is recorded under any depreciation method. Tracking the machine's own individual accumulated depreciation and computing a gain or loss from it contradicts the entire premise of the composite method, which pools rather than individually tracks depreciation across the group's dissimilar assets.
Source: US GAAP practice guidance on group and composite depreciation methods (e.g., PwC's Property, Plant and Equipment guide, chapter on depreciation): no gain or loss is recognized on ordinary retirements, with the cost/proceeds difference absorbed by accumulated depreciation
Company A exchanges a delivery truck (carrying amount $18,000, fair value $25,000) for a delivery truck owned by Company B (fair value $23,000) plus $2,000 cash paid to Company A. The exchange lacks commercial substance because the trucks perform the exact same delivery function in each company's fleet and neither company's future cash flows are expected to change as a result. Under ASC 845, how should Company A account for the truck received?
ABecause cash was received, the exchange is automatically treated as if it had commercial substance regardless of any threshold, and Company A recognizes the entire $7,000 realized gain immediately
BBecause the $2,000 cash Company A received is only 8% of the $25,000 total consideration received, below the 25% threshold at which a boot-inclusive exchange is treated as a monetary transaction, the exchange keeps its lacking-commercial-substance treatment: Company A recognizes a partial gain equal to the cash-received proportion of the $7,000 total realized gain, or $560, and records the truck received on a carryover-cost basis adjusted for the cash received
CCompany A recognizes no gain at all, deferring the entire $7,000 realized gain into the basis of the truck received, because receipt of any cash in an exchange lacking commercial substance is disregarded up to the 25% threshold
DCompany A records the truck received at its $23,000 fair value and recognizes a loss of $2,000, treating the cash received as a reduction of the truck's fair value rather than as boot within a nonmonetary exchange
Correct answer: .
ASC 845 provides that an exchange lacking commercial substance is generally recorded on a carryover-cost basis with no gain or loss recognized, but carves out an exception when the party receiving monetary consideration (boot) receives 25% or more of the total consideration received: in that case the entire transaction is treated as a monetary exchange and the full gain is recognized. Here Company A's $2,000 cash is only 8% of the $25,000 total consideration received (the $23,000 truck plus the $2,000 cash), well below the 25% threshold, so the exchange keeps its lacking-commercial-substance treatment, but the receipt of some cash still triggers partial gain recognition proportional to the cash portion: 8% of the $7,000 total realized gain ($25,000 fair value given up minus $18,000 carrying amount), or $560, with the remainder of the gain deferred into the recorded basis of the truck received. Treating any cash receipt as automatically converting the exchange into a commercial-substance transaction ignores the specific 25% threshold the guidance sets. Deferring the entire gain ignores that a cash-received boot below 25% still triggers a proportional, not zero, gain recognition. Recording a loss by treating the cash as reducing the received truck's fair value confuses monetary boot received within a nonmonetary exchange with an unrelated fair-value adjustment, which is not how boot is accounted for under this guidance.
Source: FASB ASC 845-10-30-1 through 30-3 (nonmonetary exchanges lacking commercial substance; the 25%-of-consideration boot threshold for partial gain recognition)
A machine is classified as held for sale on March 1, with a carrying amount at that date of $400,000 and a fair value less costs to sell of $370,000, resulting in an immediate $30,000 write-down. By the next reporting date, June 30, the machine's fair value less costs to sell has declined further to $340,000; it is still classified as held for sale and has not yet been sold. Under ASC 360-10-35-40, how should the company account for the change in fair value less costs to sell between March 1 and June 30?
ANo further adjustment is made until the machine is actually sold, because ASC 360-10-35-40 only requires a write-down at the initial date of held-for-sale classification, not at subsequent reporting dates
BThe company reverses the original $30,000 write-down and restores the machine to its original $400,000 carrying amount, because losses on assets held for sale cannot be increased once initially recognized
CThe company recognizes an additional $30,000 loss, reducing the machine's carrying amount from $370,000 to $340,000, because ASC 360-10-35-40 requires the carrying amount of an asset classified as held for sale to be remeasured at each subsequent reporting period at the lower of its carrying amount or its fair value less costs to sell, with any further decline recognized as an additional loss
DThe company recognizes the $30,000 additional decline as an unrealized loss in other comprehensive income rather than in earnings, consistent with the treatment of temporary fair-value declines on available-for-sale securities
Correct answer: .
ASC 360-10-35-40 does not treat the write-down at the date of initial held-for-sale classification as a one-time event; it requires the carrying amount of an asset classified as held for sale to be remeasured at each subsequent reporting period at the lower of its carrying amount or its fair value less costs to sell, with any further decline in fair value less costs to sell recognized as an additional loss for as long as the asset remains classified as held for sale and unsold. Here the machine's fair value less costs to sell fell from $370,000 to $340,000 between the two reporting dates, so the company recognizes an additional $30,000 loss and reduces the carrying amount to $340,000. The option treating the initial write-down as the only required adjustment ignores that the standard mandates remeasurement at every subsequent reporting period, not just once at classification. The option reversing the original write-down and restoring the $400,000 carrying amount is backwards: the standard does allow gains for later fair-value increases, but only up to the amount of cumulative losses previously recognized, and here fair value declined further rather than recovering, so no reversal is applicable at all. Routing the additional decline through other comprehensive income misapplies available-for-sale securities accounting, which has no bearing on held-for-sale long-lived assets; losses and any permitted subsequent gains on held-for-sale assets are recognized in earnings, not OCI.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35-40 (a loss shall be recognized for any initial or subsequent write-down to fair value less cost to sell of an asset classified as held for sale, remeasured at each reporting period)
Five years ago, a company recognized an asset retirement obligation of $200,000, the present value of estimated dismantlement costs discounted at the 6% credit-adjusted risk-free rate in effect for the company at that time. This year, based on updated engineering estimates, the company revises upward its estimate of the undiscounted future dismantlement cash flows, adding a new $150,000 layer of expected cost. The company's current credit-adjusted risk-free rate, reflecting its creditworthiness and prevailing rates today, is 9%. Under ASC 410-20, at what rate should the company discount this upward revision to measure the additional liability layer?
AThe current 9% credit-adjusted risk-free rate, because ASC 410-20 requires an upward revision in estimated cash flows to be treated as a new liability layer, discounted at the credit-adjusted risk-free rate in effect at the time the revision is recognized, while the original $200,000 layer continues to accrete at the original 6% rate
BThe original 6% credit-adjusted risk-free rate used five years ago, because all layers of a single asset retirement obligation for the same asset must be discounted at one consistent rate fixed at initial recognition
CA blended rate that weights the 6% original rate and the 9% current rate by the relative size of the original and new liability layers, recalculating the entire obligation each time a revision occurs
DWhichever of the 6% or 9% rate is lower, since ASC 410-20 requires the more conservative, lower discount rate to be used whenever cash flow estimates are revised upward
Correct answer: .
ASC 410-20 measures upward revisions to the estimated undiscounted cash flows of an asset retirement obligation as new, separate layers of the liability, each discounted at the credit-adjusted risk-free rate that is current as of the date the revision is recognized, rather than reopening or blending the rate used for previously recognized layers. Here the original $200,000 obligation, recognized five years ago at the then-current 6% rate, keeps accreting at that original 6% rate, while the new $150,000 layer of increased expected cost is discounted at today's current 9% rate and accretes separately at 9% going forward. Requiring one consistent rate fixed at initial recognition for all future revisions ignores that the layered approach exists precisely so that each layer reflects the rate conditions prevailing when that layer's cash flow estimate was added. Blending the two rates by relative layer size invents a weighted-average mechanism the standard does not use; layers are tracked and accreted separately, not merged into a single recalculated rate. Selecting whichever rate is lower for conservatism has no basis in ASC 410-20 — downward revisions, not upward ones, are the case where the original historical rate is reused, and even then it is because that layer is being reduced, not because a lower rate is inherently more conservative.
Source: FASB ASC 410-20-35-8 (upward revisions to estimated cash flows of an asset retirement obligation are discounted at the current credit-adjusted risk-free rate as a new liability layer; downward revisions use the rate in effect when the corresponding layer was initially recognized)
A medical device company is developing a new implant. During the year it buys a general-purpose lab centrifuge for $300,000 that will be used on this project but can also be redeployed afterward to other future R&D projects and to routine quality-control testing once this project ends, so it has an alternative future use beyond this one project. The company separately pays $180,000 in salaries to bench scientists working directly on the implant project. Under ASC 730, how should the company account for the $300,000 centrifuge cost and the $180,000 of scientist salaries?
ACapitalize both the centrifuge and the salaries as intangible research and development assets, amortizing each over the expected life of the implant project once the project reaches technological feasibility
BExpense both the centrifuge's full cost and the salaries immediately as research and development expense, because ASC 730 requires all costs directly identified with a specific research and development project to be expensed when incurred regardless of an asset's future usefulness
CCapitalize the $300,000 centrifuge as a tangible asset and depreciate it over its useful life, charging the depreciation to research and development expense as the centrifuge is used, because it has an alternative future use beyond this project, while expensing the $180,000 of scientist salaries as research and development expense as incurred
DExpense the $300,000 centrifuge immediately because specialized research equipment can never be capitalized under US GAAP, but capitalize the $180,000 of salaries as a prepaid research and development asset until the project reaches technological feasibility
Correct answer: .
ASC 730-10-25-2 provides that materials, equipment, and facilities used in research and development activities are charged to expense when acquired unless they have an alternative future use, in which case they are capitalized as tangible assets and their cost is allocated to expense (as depreciation) over the periods the assets are used, with that depreciation itself treated as a research and development cost. Because the centrifuge here can be redeployed to future projects and routine testing after this project ends, it has an alternative future use and must be capitalized and depreciated rather than expensed in full. Personnel costs such as scientist salaries directly engaged in research and development, by contrast, have no such capitalization exception and are always expensed as incurred. The option capitalizing both items as amortizable intangible assets misapplies an internal-use or externally-marketed software framework that has no bearing on tangible lab equipment or labor costs under ASC 730. The option expensing both amounts in full ignores the specific statutory exception for tangible items with an alternative future use, which exists precisely to prevent expensing an asset that will keep generating value beyond the current project. The option reversing the treatment, expensing the equipment while capitalizing the salaries as a prepaid asset, inverts the rule entirely: it is tangible items with alternative future use that qualify for capitalization, never labor costs, which are never capitalized as research and development assets regardless of any future use argument.
Source: FASB ASC 730-10-25-2 (elements of research and development costs; capitalization of materials, equipment, and facilities with alternative future use)
A retailer signs a five-year cloud-hosting arrangement with a vendor under which the vendor's software is accessed remotely over the internet; the retailer never takes possession of the software and has no right to run it on its own hardware, so the arrangement is a hosting arrangement that is a service contract rather than a software license. After completing the preliminary project stage, the retailer's IT staff spend $400,000 configuring and testing the hosted system to integrate with its point-of-sale data before go-live. Under ASC 350-40 as amended by ASU 2018-15, how should the retailer account for this $400,000 of implementation costs?
ACapitalize the $400,000 as a prepaid asset on the balance sheet (not as internal-use software or property, plant and equipment), applying the same stage-based recognition criteria used for internal-use software, and amortize it on a straight-line basis over the term of the hosting arrangement, presenting the amortization in the same income statement line item as the hosting fees
BExpense the $400,000 immediately, because costs incurred in a hosting arrangement that is a service contract can never be capitalized since the retailer never obtains a software license or takes possession of any asset
CCapitalize the $400,000 as an internal-use software intangible asset under the same balance sheet caption used for internally developed software, amortized over the software vendor's expected product life cycle rather than the hosting contract's term
DCapitalize the $400,000 as leasehold improvements to the retailer's existing IT infrastructure, amortized over the remaining useful life of that infrastructure
Correct answer: .
ASU 2018-15, codified in ASC 350-40, requires a customer in a hosting arrangement that is a service contract to apply the same capitalization criteria used for internal-use software to the implementation costs of that arrangement: costs incurred in an application-development-stage-equivalent activity, such as configuring and testing the hosted system for the customer's own use, are capitalized. However, because no software license or other asset is obtained, the capitalized amount is presented on the balance sheet as a prepaid asset rather than as internal-use software or property, plant and equipment, and it is amortized straight-line over the term of the hosting arrangement, with the amortization expense presented in the same income statement line as the related hosting fees. The option expensing everything immediately describes the rule that applied before ASU 2018-15, when hosting arrangements were treated purely as service contracts with no capitalization at all; ASU 2018-15 specifically changed this by aligning the accounting with internal-use software while stopping short of calling the result software or a licensed asset. The option treating the cost as internal-use software under the internal-use software caption, amortized over the vendor's product life cycle, misapplies the balance sheet presentation and the amortization period, which is tied to the hosting contract term, not any external product cycle. The option treating the cost as leasehold improvements to IT infrastructure has no basis in ASC 350-40, since nothing here involves leased physical space or equipment.
Source: FASB ASC 350-40-25 and 350-40-35, as amended by ASU 2018-15 (customer's accounting for implementation costs of a hosting arrangement that is a service contract)
A company acquires a customer-relationship intangible asset for $600,000 in a business combination. The relationships are supported by long-term contracts, but the contracts are renewable, and the company expects the underlying relationships (current contracts plus expected renewals combined) to generate cash flows for approximately 12 years, after which competitive and market factors are expected to erode the relationships entirely. Management cannot reliably determine any specific pattern, front-loaded, back-loaded, or otherwise, in which the economic benefits are expected to be consumed. Under ASC 350-30, over what period and using what method should the company amortize this intangible asset?
AThe asset should not be amortized at all, because any intangible asset with a determinable estimate of useful life lasting more than 10 years is automatically treated as indefinite-lived under ASC 350-30
BOver an arbitrary default period of 40 years using the straight-line method, since ASC 350-30 sets 40 years as the standard amortization period for all acquired intangible assets absent other information
COver 12 years, but only using an accelerated (for example, declining-balance) method, because customer-relationship intangibles are presumed under ASC 350-30 to always be consumed on an accelerated basis
DOver the estimated 12-year useful life, on a straight-line basis, because legal, contractual, competitive, and economic factors together indicate a finite (not indefinite) life, and straight-line amortization applies under ASC 350-30 whenever the pattern in which the asset's economic benefits are consumed cannot be reliably determined
Correct answer: .
ASC 350-30-35-1 through 35-3 requires an entity to estimate an intangible asset's useful life based on legal, regulatory, contractual, competitive, and economic factors, and to treat the asset as finite-lived (amortized) unless no such factor limits its life. Here the renewable-but-eroding contracts and expected competitive decay point to a finite 12-year life, not an indefinite one, so amortization is required. ASC 350-30-35-6 further requires straight-line amortization whenever the pattern in which the economic benefits of the intangible asset are expected to be consumed cannot be reliably determined, which is exactly the case described. The option treating the asset as indefinite-lived simply because its life exceeds ten years invents a bright-line rule that does not exist; indefinite life depends on the absence of any limiting factor, not on the length of the estimated life. The option imposing a fixed 40-year default period fabricates a rule from an entirely different, now-superseded accounting framework and ignores the specific 12-year estimate supported by the facts. The option requiring an accelerated method presumes a consumption pattern that the facts explicitly rule out, since management could not reliably determine any such pattern, which is precisely the condition triggering the straight-line default rather than an accelerated method.
Source: FASB ASC 350-30-35-1 through 35-6 (determining and amortizing the useful life of a finite-lived intangible asset)
A manufacturer's plant has experienced a significant decline in local demand for its product over the past two years, resulting in a current-period operating loss at the plant combined with a history of operating losses there and no realistic projection of profitability at that location in the foreseeable future. Under ASC 360-10-35-21, does this fact pattern represent an indicator that the plant's long-lived assets should be tested for recoverability, and if so, what is the next required step?
ANo indicator is present, because ASC 360 only requires impairment testing at fixed calendar intervals, such as annually, rather than in response to events or changes in circumstances
BYes: a current-period operating or cash flow loss combined with a history of such losses, or a projection of continuing losses, is one of the specific examples of an impairment indicator identified in ASC 360-10-35-21; because an indicator is present, the company must test the asset group for recoverability by comparing its carrying amount to the sum of the estimated undiscounted future cash flows expected from its use and eventual disposal
CYes, an indicator is present, and because an indicator exists, the company must immediately write the asset group down to fair value without first performing any undiscounted cash flow recoverability test
DNo, because operating losses relate to the income statement and are irrelevant to whether long-lived assets reported on the balance sheet might be impaired under ASC 360
Correct answer: .
ASC 360-10-35-21 lists specific examples of events or changes in circumstances indicating that the carrying amount of a long-lived asset (asset group) may not be recoverable, one of which is a current-period operating or cash flow loss combined with a history of operating or cash flow losses associated with the use of the asset, or a projection or forecast demonstrating continuing losses. That is exactly the fact pattern here, so an impairment indicator is present, which triggers (rather than skips) the recoverability test: the asset group's carrying amount is compared to the sum of the estimated undiscounted future cash flows expected from its continued use and eventual disposal, and only if the carrying amount exceeds that undiscounted sum does the entity proceed to measure and recognize an impairment loss based on fair value. The option requiring only fixed-interval testing ignores that ASC 360 is fundamentally an indicator-triggered, event-driven model for long-lived assets held and used, unlike the annual testing required for goodwill. The option jumping straight to a fair-value write-down skips the required first step of comparing carrying amount to undiscounted cash flows, which is mandatory before any fair-value-based loss can be measured. The option treating operating losses as irrelevant to asset carrying amounts contradicts the standard's own list of indicators, which explicitly includes operating and cash flow losses as evidence bearing on recoverability.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35-21 and 360-10-35-17 (indicators of impairment and the undiscounted cash flow recoverability test for long-lived assets held and used)
A company sells a delivery van outright for $9,000 cash to an unrelated buyer. The van has an original cost of $30,000 and accumulated depreciation of $24,000 at the date of sale, so its carrying amount is $6,000. The van was never classified as held for sale, and the sale does not represent a strategic shift that qualifies as a discontinued operation. Under US GAAP, how should the company account for this transaction?
ARecord the $9,000 cash received as revenue and continue to depreciate the van's remaining $6,000 carrying amount over its original useful life, because the sale does not qualify as a discontinued operation
BRecognize no gain or loss; instead reduce additional paid-in capital by the $3,000 difference between the cash received and the van's carrying amount, because disposals of property, plant and equipment outside the ordinary course of business bypass the income statement
CDerecognize the van's $30,000 cost and $24,000 of accumulated depreciation, and recognize a $3,000 gain (the $9,000 proceeds less the $6,000 carrying amount) in income from continuing operations, because the disposal is not a discontinued operation
DRecognize a $3,000 loss, because a sale for less than an asset's original cost is always reported as a loss regardless of the asset's accumulated depreciation or carrying amount
Correct answer: .
Under ASC 360-10-40, when a long-lived asset that is not a discontinued operation is sold, the entity derecognizes the asset's cost and related accumulated depreciation and recognizes any gain or loss, measured as the sale proceeds less the asset's carrying amount at the date of sale, in income from continuing operations. Here proceeds of $9,000 exceed the $6,000 carrying amount by $3,000, so a $3,000 gain is recognized and both the cost and accumulated depreciation are removed from the books. The option treating the proceeds as revenue while continuing to depreciate the van is wrong because the van has been sold and no longer exists on the company's books to be depreciated; treating incidental sale proceeds as revenue also misclassifies the nature of the transaction. The option routing the difference through additional paid-in capital fabricates an equity treatment that has no basis for an ordinary asset disposal; gains and losses on the sale of long-lived assets flow through the income statement, not equity. The option asserting that any sale below original cost is automatically a loss ignores that gain or loss recognition depends on comparing proceeds to the asset's carrying amount (cost less accumulated depreciation), not its original cost; a fully or substantially depreciated asset can easily be sold above its carrying amount for a gain even while sold below its original cost.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-40-1 (recognition of gain or loss on sale of a long-lived asset not classified as a discontinued operation)
Company P exchanges a piece of manufacturing equipment (carrying amount $60,000, fair value $100,000) for a different piece of manufacturing equipment owned by Company Q (fair value $70,000), plus $30,000 cash paid by Company Q to Company P. The exchange has commercial substance. The $30,000 cash represents 30% of the $100,000 total fair value of the exchange. Under ASC 845, how does the size of the cash portion affect Company P's accounting for this exchange?
ABecause the cash (boot) received is 30%, which is 25% or more of the fair value of the exchange, the exchange is considered a monetary transaction; Company P recognizes the entire $40,000 gain, not merely a proportional part of it, even though it also received a nonmonetary asset
BThe 25%-or-more threshold is irrelevant here because the exchange already has commercial substance; commercial substance alone, independent of any boot percentage, is the only factor ASC 845 considers in determining how much gain to recognize
CBecause the cash received is 30% of the fair value of the exchange, Company P must treat the transaction as entirely nonmonetary and defer the full $40,000 gain until the equipment received is subsequently disposed of
DThe 25% threshold under ASC 845 caps the gain Company P can recognize at 25% of the total gain regardless of the actual proportion of cash received, so only $10,000 of the $40,000 gain is recognized immediately
Correct answer: .
ASC 845-10-30 provides that when an exchange includes both a nonmonetary asset and monetary consideration (boot), and the boot is significant, defined as being 25 percent or more of the fair value of the exchange, both parties account for the entire transaction as if it were monetary rather than nonmonetary. Here the $30,000 of cash is 30% of the $100,000 fair value of the exchange, crossing that threshold, so Company P recognizes its full $40,000 gain (the $100,000 fair value of the equipment given up less its $60,000 carrying amount), rather than only a portion of it, even though part of what it received was another piece of equipment rather than cash. The option asserting that commercial substance alone governs ignores that the boot-percentage test is a separate, specific rule that applies in addition to the commercial-substance analysis and can itself convert what looks like a nonmonetary exchange into one accounted for as monetary. The option requiring full deferral of the gain describes the treatment for exchanges lacking commercial substance with little or no boot, which is the opposite of the facts here, where boot is significant and commercial substance is present. The option capping recognized gain at a fixed 25% fabricates a proportional-limitation rule; the 25% figure in ASC 845 is a threshold that determines whether the whole transaction is treated as monetary, not a ceiling on the percentage of gain recognized.
Source: FASB ASC 845-10-30 (nonmonetary transactions involving monetary consideration; the 25 percent boot threshold for monetary transaction treatment)
An acquirer identifies an in-process research and development (IPR&D) project with no alternative future use as part of the identifiable assets acquired. In Scenario 1, the acquirer obtains the IPR&D project as part of acquiring an entire operating business that meets the definition of a business under ASC 805. In Scenario 2, a different acquirer obtains an identical IPR&D project, but only as part of a group of assets acquired that does not meet the definition of a business. Under current US GAAP, how should each acquirer account for the IPR&D project at the acquisition date?
AIn both scenarios, the IPR&D project must be expensed immediately at the acquisition date, because IPR&D with no alternative future use is always treated as a research and development cost under ASC 730 regardless of how it was acquired
BIn both scenarios, the IPR&D project must be capitalized as an indefinite-lived intangible asset, tested for impairment until the associated research project is completed or abandoned, because acquired IPR&D is never subject to the immediate-expensing rule in ASC 730
CIn Scenario 1, the IPR&D project is expensed immediately because it lacks an alternative future use; in Scenario 2, it is capitalized as an indefinite-lived intangible asset because asset acquisitions are always recorded using a fair-value model
DIn Scenario 1 (a business combination), the IPR&D project is capitalized as an indefinite-lived intangible asset under ASC 805-20-25-13, tested for impairment until the associated project is completed or abandoned; in Scenario 2 (an asset acquisition that is not a business combination), the IPR&D project, having no alternative future use, is expensed immediately at the acquisition date under ASC 730-10-25
Correct answer: .
The accounting for acquired IPR&D depends on whether it is obtained in a business combination or in an asset acquisition. ASC 805-20-25-13 requires an acquirer in a business combination to recognize acquired IPR&D as an indefinite-lived intangible asset at its acquisition-date fair value, regardless of whether it has an alternative future use; that asset is not amortized but is tested for impairment until the associated research and development project is completed (at which point it becomes a finite-lived amortizable asset) or abandoned (at which point it is written off). Outside a business combination, in an asset acquisition where the acquired group of assets does not meet the definition of a business, ASC 730-10-25 continues to require IPR&D with no alternative future use to be expensed immediately at the acquisition date, consistent with the general research and development cost model. The option expensing IPR&D in both scenarios ignores the specific business-combination exception created for IPR&D acquired in a business combination. The option capitalizing IPR&D as indefinite-lived in both scenarios ignores that the business-combination exception does not extend to asset acquisitions, where the ordinary ASC 730 expensing rule still applies. The option reversing the two treatments, expensing in the business combination and capitalizing in the asset acquisition, inverts the actual rule, which capitalizes IPR&D specifically because it arose in a business combination, not despite it.
Source: FASB ASC 805-20-25-13 (acquired in-process research and development in a business combination) and ASC 730-10-25 (research and development costs acquired other than in a business combination)
A company is recognizing a new asset retirement obligation for a facility's future decommissioning. Its engineers develop three possible decommissioning cost scenarios: a $2 million scenario management assigns a 20% probability, a $3 million scenario assigned a 50% probability, and a $5 million scenario assigned a 30% probability. Under ASC 410-20, what undiscounted cash flow estimate should the company use as the basis for measuring the fair value of this obligation, and what technique does this reflect?
AThe company should use the single $3 million most-likely-outcome scenario alone, discounted at a risk-free rate, because ASC 410-20 requires selecting the most probable individual outcome rather than incorporating multiple scenarios
BThe company should use the probability-weighted expected cash flow of $3.4 million (($2 million x 20%) + ($3 million x 50%) + ($5 million x 30%)), reflecting the expected present value technique that ASC 410-20 identifies as the preferred approach when a range of possible outcomes exists, with the resulting expected cash flow then discounted at the credit-adjusted risk-free rate
CThe company should use the highest of the three scenarios, $5 million, on the basis that ASC 410-20 requires the most conservative, highest-cost undiscounted estimate whenever multiple outcomes are identified
DThe company should use a simple, unweighted average of the three scenarios, $3.33 million, because ASC 410-20 requires equal weighting of all identified outcomes regardless of their assigned probabilities
Correct answer: .
ASC 410-20-30-3 through 30-4 identifies the expected present value technique as the preferred approach for measuring the fair value of an asset retirement obligation in most circumstances, particularly whenever a range of possible settlement dates and cash flow scenarios exists. That technique weights each identified outcome by its assigned probability to arrive at a single expected cash flow estimate, which is then discounted using the credit-adjusted risk-free rate to arrive at the liability's present value. Here the probability-weighted calculation is $2 million times 20%, plus $3 million times 50%, plus $5 million times 30%, totaling $3.4 million. The option selecting only the single most-likely scenario ignores that ASC 410-20 specifically calls for incorporating the full range of identified outcomes through probability weighting rather than picking one scenario and discarding the rest. The option selecting the highest-cost scenario fabricates a conservatism-based rule that does not appear in ASC 410-20; the standard calls for a probability-weighted expectation, not a worst-case assumption. The option using a simple unweighted average ignores the probabilities management has actually assigned to each scenario, substituting equal weighting for the information given, which is inconsistent with the expected-present-value method's core purpose of reflecting the relative likelihood of each outcome.
Source: FASB ASC 410-20-30-3 through 30-4 (expected present value technique for measuring the fair value of an asset retirement obligation)
A local government exercises eminent domain over a strip of a company's land needed for a highway project. In Case 1, the government's condemnation award transfers to the company a parcel of substitute land of directly comparable use, with no cash changing hands. In Case 2, a different company's warehouse is destroyed by a covered peril, and its insurer pays a $500,000 cash settlement; the company has not yet decided whether it will use the cash to rebuild. Under US GAAP, how do these two involuntary conversions differ in their gain recognition?
ABoth cases are treated identically: the fair value of whatever is received, substitute land or cash, is compared to the carrying amount of the asset given up, and any excess is recognized as a gain immediately in both cases, because GAAP applies the same rule to every involuntary conversion regardless of what is received
BIn Case 1, the company recognizes an immediate gain equal to the substitute land's fair value less the original land's carrying amount; in Case 2, no gain is recognized until the company has made a firm decision on how to use the insurance proceeds
CIn Case 1, because the land was converted directly into a similar nonmonetary asset with no cash involved, no gain is recognized at conversion, and the substitute land takes on the original land's carrying amount as its basis; in Case 2, because the warehouse was converted into a monetary asset (cash), a gain equal to the proceeds less the warehouse's carrying amount is recognized immediately in the period of conversion, regardless of whether or when the cash is used to rebuild
DIn Case 1, no gain is ever recognized and the substitute land is recorded at zero; in Case 2, the gain is deferred and recognized only in the period funds are actually spent to rebuild the warehouse, consistent with US GAAP's general preference for deferring involuntary-conversion gains until reinvestment
Correct answer: .
Whether a gain is recognized on an involuntary conversion under US GAAP turns on what the company receives in exchange for the converted asset. In Case 1, the land is converted directly into a similar nonmonetary asset, substitute land of comparable use, with no monetary consideration involved, so the transaction is treated like a nonmonetary exchange without the recognition trigger that a monetary receipt creates: no gain is recognized, and the substitute land is recorded at the original land's carrying amount, carrying that basis forward. In Case 2, the warehouse is converted into a monetary asset, cash from the insurer, and a monetary conversion triggers immediate gain recognition equal to the proceeds less the asset's carrying amount in the period the conversion occurs, regardless of whether or when the company later decides to spend that cash rebuilding; any replacement purchase is a separate transaction recorded at its own cost. The option treating both cases identically ignores this fundamental distinction between nonmonetary and monetary conversions that the accounting model turns on. The option deferring the Case 2 gain until a rebuilding decision is made incorrectly imports an income-tax deferral concept, available under separate tax rules, into financial reporting, where GAAP recognizes the gain immediately upon conversion into cash. The option recording the Case 1 land at zero and deferring the Case 2 gain until funds are spent misstates both outcomes: the substitute land carries over the original basis rather than being recorded at zero, and GAAP has no general policy of deferring monetary-conversion gains pending reinvestment.
Source: FASB ASC 610-30 (involuntary conversions of nonfinancial assets; direct nonmonetary replacement versus monetary conversion)
A retailer builds out custom leasehold improvements at a cost of $200,000 in a store it leases under a non-cancelable 6-year lease with a single 4-year renewal option. The improvements have a physical useful life of 15 years, but the retailer is not reasonably certain it will exercise the renewal option. Under US GAAP, over what period should the retailer amortize the $200,000 of leasehold improvements?
AOver 6 years, the remaining lease term, because that is shorter than both the improvements' 15-year physical useful life and the term including a renewal option the retailer is not reasonably certain to exercise
BOver 15 years, the improvements' full physical useful life, because leasehold improvements are always amortized over their physical useful life regardless of the length of the underlying lease
COver 10 years, the non-cancelable lease term plus the renewal option period, because all renewal options are automatically included in the amortization period regardless of whether exercise is reasonably certain
DOver the shorter of 6 years or 15 years, but rounded up to the nearest 5-year increment, as required under US GAAP for leasehold improvement amortization schedules
Correct answer: .
Leasehold improvements are amortized over the shorter of the improvement's useful life or the lease term, where the lease term includes renewal periods only when the lessee is reasonably certain to exercise the related renewal option. Here the improvements' physical useful life is 15 years, but the retailer is not reasonably certain it will exercise the 4-year renewal option, so the relevant lease term for amortization purposes is the 6-year non-cancelable period rather than the full 10 years including the option. Because 6 years is shorter than the 15-year physical life, the improvements are amortized over 6 years. The option requiring amortization over the full 15-year physical life ignores that leasehold improvements are constrained by the lease term whenever that term is shorter, since the improvements have no assured use to the retailer beyond the period it controls the leased space. The option automatically including the renewal option's 4 years regardless of certainty of exercise ignores the reasonably-certain-to-exercise condition, which exists precisely to prevent extending the amortization period based on an option the lessee may never take up. The option applying a rounding convention to the nearest 5-year increment fabricates a mechanical rule that does not exist anywhere in US GAAP; the shorter-of comparison uses the actual useful life and actual lease term, not a rounded approximation.
Source: FASB ASC 842-20-35-12 (amortization of leasehold improvements over the shorter of their useful life or the lease term, including renewal periods reasonably certain to be exercised)
A company's engineering team spends $120,000 in research and development to invent a new manufacturing process. After the process proves successful, the company pays $18,000 in legal and government filing fees to register a patent protecting it. No other costs are incurred. Under ASC 730 and ASC 350-30, what amount, if any, should the company capitalize as the patent's cost, and how should the $120,000 of R&D spending be treated?
ACapitalize the full $138,000 ($120,000 R&D plus $18,000 filing fees) as the patent's cost, since all of it relates to creating the patented asset
BCapitalize only the $18,000 of legal and filing fees as the patent's cost and amortize it over the patent's useful life; expense the $120,000 of R&D spending as incurred
CExpense both the $120,000 and the $18,000 as incurred, because internally generated intangible assets can never be capitalized under US GAAP
DCapitalize the $120,000 of R&D spending as the patent's cost and expense the $18,000 of legal and filing fees as a period cost
Correct answer: .
ASC 730-10-25 requires R&D costs to be expensed as incurred because, at the time they're incurred, there's no assurance the research will produce a future economic benefit — this is true even when the research succeeds and eventually leads to a patentable invention. Once a patent is actually obtained, though, ASC 350-30-25 treats the patent as a separately identifiable, specifically attributable intangible asset, and the direct legal and governmental filing costs incurred to register the application at that point are capitalized as the patent's cost and amortized over its useful life, since those costs are directly attributable to securing the specific legal right rather than to the uncertain research effort itself. Capitalizing the full $138,000 wrongly folds the inherently uncertain R&D spending into an asset's cost as if success were assured from the outset. Expensing everything on the theory that internally generated intangibles can never be capitalized overgeneralizes: that blanket prohibition applies to unidentifiable internally generated intangibles like goodwill or brand value, not to the separately identifiable legal costs of registering a patent. Capitalizing the R&D spending while expensing the filing fees reverses the correct treatment of the two cost streams entirely.
Source: FASB ASC 730-10-25 (Research and Development — expensing) and ASC 350-30-25 (Intangibles — patent costs)
A retailer purchases a perpetual software license from a vendor for $300,000 to run its internal accounting system; the software is used entirely in-house and is never sold or licensed to customers. The retailer separately pays a consulting firm $50,000 to configure and install the software so it functions with the retailer's existing systems before go-live. Under ASC 350-40, how should the retailer account for these two costs?
ACapitalize the $300,000 license fee, but expense the $50,000 of configuration and installation costs as incurred, since only the license itself is an asset
BTreat both costs the same way as internally developed software: expense both amounts until the project formally enters the application development stage, since neither cost yet qualifies
CExpense both the $300,000 license fee and the $50,000 of configuration and installation costs as incurred, because purchased (as opposed to internally developed) software cannot be capitalized under US GAAP
DCapitalize both the $300,000 license fee and the $50,000 of configuration and installation costs, since a purchased software license is capitalized immediately upon acquisition rather than evaluated against the three-stage test that applies to internally developed software, and costs to get purchased software ready for its intended use are also capitalized
Correct answer: .
Under ASC 350-40, a purchased software license for internal use is capitalized immediately when acquired — the three-stage framework (preliminary project stage, application development stage, post-implementation stage) that determines whether costs are expensed or capitalized applies to internally developed software, not to the license fee paid for software a company buys outright. Costs incurred to configure and install purchased software so it is ready for its intended use, such as the consulting fees here, are likewise capitalized as part of bringing the asset into service, the same way installation costs are capitalized for purchased equipment. Capitalizing only the license fee while expensing configuration costs ignores that readiness costs for an asset are part of its cost. Forcing both costs through the internally-developed-software stage test confuses the framework that governs costs a company incurs building its own software with the framework that governs software it simply buys. Claiming purchased software can never be capitalized is squarely wrong; purchased software is, if anything, more straightforwardly capitalizable than internally developed software because there is no stage-based uncertainty to resolve before capitalization can begin.
Three years ago, a company recognized an asset retirement obligation layer of $90,000, the present value of estimated dismantlement cash flows discounted at the 7% credit-adjusted risk-free rate in effect for the company at that time. This year, based on updated engineering data specific to that same original layer, the company decreases its estimate of the undiscounted future dismantlement cash flows for that layer. The company's current credit-adjusted risk-free rate today is 10%. Under ASC 410-20, at what rate should the company discount this downward revision?
AThe 7% rate that was in effect when that original layer was first recognized three years ago, since downward revisions are discounted using the historical rate associated with the layer being reduced (or a weighted-average historical rate if the specific layer can't be identified), not the current rate
BThe current 10% credit-adjusted risk-free rate, using the same rate that would apply to an upward revision of the same layer
CA simple average of the 7% and 10% rates, blending the obligation's original and current risk profiles
DThe risk-free rate alone, with no credit adjustment, since a downward revision reduces risk and no longer warrants a credit-risk premium
Correct answer: .
ASC 410-20-35-8 treats upward and downward revisions to an asset retirement obligation's estimated cash flows asymmetrically. Upward revisions are discounted using the current credit-adjusted risk-free rate, reflecting that a new layer of obligation is effectively being recognized today. Downward revisions, by contrast, are discounted using the historical credit-adjusted risk-free rate that applied when the specific layer being reduced was originally recognized, or a weighted-average historical rate if the company cannot identify which specific layer the reduction relates to. The reasoning is that a downward revision reverses part of a previously recognized layer rather than creating a new one, so it should unwind at the same rate that layer was originally measured at; using today's rate instead would let a change in interest rates manufacture a gain or loss that has nothing to do with the actual change in expected cash flows. Using the current rate for a downward revision, as if it were symmetrical with the upward-revision rule, is exactly the mistake the standard is designed to prevent. Averaging the two rates has no basis in the guidance. Dropping the credit adjustment entirely ignores that the credit-adjusted risk-free rate, not the plain risk-free rate, is the rate ASC 410-20 requires throughout, for both upward and downward revisions alike.
A parent company's board approves a plan to spin off a manufacturing plant by distributing it to the parent's shareholders as a pro rata stock dividend, with no cash or other consideration received in return. In the months before the distribution date, the plant continues to operate normally. Under ASC 360-10-35, how should the parent classify and account for the plant in the period leading up to the distribution, and what happens at the distribution date if the plant's carrying amount then exceeds its fair value?
AThe plant is reclassified as held for sale as soon as the spin-off plan is approved, depreciation stops immediately, and it is carried at the lower of its carrying amount or fair value less costs to sell from that point forward
BThe plant remains classified as held and used throughout, continues to be depreciated normally, and its recoverability is tested assuming the plant continues to be used for its remaining useful life rather than assuming the planned distribution occurs; at the distribution date, an impairment loss is recognized if the carrying amount then exceeds fair value
CThe plant remains classified as held and used, but its recoverability test assumes the distribution will occur as planned, so the undiscounted cash flows used are limited to only the period remaining until the distribution date
DNo impairment testing is required at any point before or at the distribution date, because a distribution to owners is not a sale and therefore falls outside ASC 360-10's scope entirely
Correct answer: .
A long-lived asset to be disposed of other than by sale — including one to be distributed to owners in a spin-off — does not meet the held-for-sale criteria in ASC 360-10, because those criteria are written around a sale transaction with a buyer. Instead, the asset continues to be classified as held and used right up until the distribution occurs, and continues to be depreciated normally in the meantime. When testing recoverability during that period, the undiscounted cash flow estimate is based on using the asset for its full remaining useful life, assuming the planned distribution will not occur, which avoids letting the pending spin-off itself manufacture an impairment. At the distribution date itself, the asset is remeasured: if its carrying amount exceeds its fair value at that date, an impairment loss is recognized before the asset is removed from the parent's books at its post-impairment carrying amount. Treating the plant as held for sale and halting depreciation early misapplies a test reserved for sale transactions. Assuming the distribution will occur when estimating the recoverability-period cash flows gets the required assumption backwards — the test must assume continued use, not the pending disposal. Claiming no impairment testing applies at all ignores that ASC 360-10 explicitly addresses distributions to owners as one of its covered disposal methods.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35 and ASC 360-10-40-4 (Impairment or Disposal of Long-Lived Assets — assets to be distributed to owners)
A company buys a vacant parcel of land for $1,000,000 as the future site of a plant it does not yet plan to begin constructing, also paying $40,000 in legal and title fees to complete the purchase. Over the following two years, before any construction begins, the company pays $25,000 per year in property taxes and insurance on the land. Under US GAAP, how should the company account for the $1,040,000 of acquisition costs and the recurring $25,000 of annual holding costs?
ACapitalize the $1,040,000 of acquisition costs, and also capitalize the $25,000 of property taxes and insurance paid in each of the two years as part of the land's cost, since all of these costs relate to an asset the company will eventually use
BExpense the $40,000 of legal and title fees as a period cost while capitalizing only the $1,000,000 purchase price, since legal fees are administrative rather than part of the land itself
CTreat the $1,000,000 purchase price and $40,000 of legal and title fees as a period expense until construction begins, at which point the full $1,040,000 is capitalized as the land's cost
DCapitalize the $1,040,000 of acquisition costs ($1,000,000 purchase price plus $40,000 of direct legal and title fees) as the land's cost, and expense the $25,000 of property taxes and insurance paid in each of the two years as incurred, since the land is merely being held for future use and no construction activity is yet underway
Correct answer: .
Under US GAAP, the capitalized cost of land includes the purchase price together with all costs directly and necessarily incurred to complete the acquisition, such as legal and title fees, consistent with the general historical-cost principle for property, plant, and equipment. Once land is acquired but held for future use rather than actively being developed, however, carrying costs incurred during the holding period, such as property taxes and insurance, are expensed as incurred rather than added to the land's cost, because those costs are not part of bringing a specific asset to its intended use — they are simply the cost of owning the land while it sits idle. If and when active construction begins, carrying costs incurred during that construction period are capitalized instead, but that is a distinct later stage from the pre-construction holding period described here. Capitalizing the annual property taxes and insurance treats routine carrying costs as if they were acquisition or construction costs, which overstates the land's cost basis. Expensing the legal and title fees wrongly excludes costs that are squarely part of completing the purchase. Deferring recognition of the entire $1,040,000 acquisition cost until construction begins incorrectly delays capitalization of a cost that is incurred, and should be recognized, at the time of purchase.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-30 (Property, Plant, and Equipment — initial measurement) and ASC 970-340-25 (real estate carrying costs of land held for future use)
A mining company acquires a tract's mineral rights for $2,000,000. It incurs $300,000 of exploration costs, expensed as incurred consistent with its established accounting policy, and $500,000 of development costs to prepare the deposit for extraction, and it recognizes an asset retirement obligation with an initial measured amount of $200,000 for the site restoration required once extraction ends. Management estimates 1,000,000 tons of recoverable reserves and a $100,000 residual value for the property once depleted. During the first year, the company extracts and sells 150,000 tons. Under the cost depletion method, what depletion expense should the company recognize for the first year?
A$450,000, treating the $300,000 of already-expensed exploration costs as part of the depletion base alongside the acquisition, development, and restoration costs, with no reduction for residual value
B$390,000, computed by dividing a depletion base of $2,600,000 — the $2,000,000 acquisition cost plus the $500,000 of development costs plus the $200,000 initial asset retirement obligation, less the $100,000 residual value — by the 1,000,000 tons of estimated recoverable reserves, then multiplying the resulting $2.60-per-ton rate by the 150,000 tons extracted
C$375,000, computed from a depletion base limited to the $2,000,000 acquisition cost and $500,000 of development costs only, excluding both the asset retirement obligation and the residual value
D$285,000, computed from a depletion base consisting only of the $2,000,000 acquisition cost less the $100,000 residual value, excluding the development costs and the asset retirement obligation entirely
Correct answer: .
The cost depletion method divides a depletion base by the estimated total recoverable units to arrive at a per-unit depletion rate, then multiplies that rate by the units extracted in the period. The depletion base is built from the acquisition cost of the mineral rights, plus development costs incurred to prepare the property for extraction, plus the initial estimated restoration (asset retirement) costs that will be required once extraction ends, less the property's estimated residual value once depleted. Here that is $2,000,000 plus $500,000 plus $200,000, less $100,000, for a $2,600,000 base, divided by 1,000,000 recoverable tons for a $2.60 rate, times 150,000 tons extracted, for $390,000. The option folding the $300,000 of exploration costs into the base is wrong because those costs were already expensed as incurred under the company's stated policy and do not get capitalized a second time into the depletion base. The option excluding the restoration cost and residual value, and the option excluding development costs and the restoration cost, each omit required components of the depletion base, understating or distorting the per-unit rate and the resulting expense.
Source: FASB ASC 930 (Extractive Activities — Mining); cost depletion method and depletion base composition (acquisition, development, and restoration costs, less residual value, divided by estimated recoverable units) as described in standard intermediate accounting references
A company is self-constructing a warehouse using a mix of specific construction debt and general borrowings, and has been capitalizing interest cost each month since qualifying expenditures began. In Month 4, a two-week spell of unusually heavy rain halts all on-site work. In Month 7, a labor strike halts all on-site construction activity for four months, with no construction-related work of any kind continuing during the strike. Under ASC 835-20, how should the company treat interest capitalization during each interruption?
ACapitalization must be suspended during both interruptions, because any cessation of on-site physical construction activity, regardless of duration or cause, triggers mandatory suspension under ASC 835-20
BCapitalization continues uninterrupted through both events, because ASC 835-20 only requires suspension when the asset itself is permanently abandoned, not merely delayed
CCapitalization continues through the brief two-week weather delay, since brief interruptions do not require suspension, but must be suspended during the four-month labor strike, since that is an extended period during which essentially all activities necessary to get the asset ready for its intended use are suspended
DCapitalization must be suspended during the brief two-week weather delay but may continue through the four-month strike, because weather delays are explicitly listed in ASC 835-20 as a suspension trigger while labor disputes are explicitly excluded
Correct answer: .
ASC 835-20-25-5 provides that interest capitalization is not suspended during brief interruptions, such as short delays from weather or normal course-of-business pauses, but must be suspended during an extended period in which activities necessary to get the asset ready for its intended use are suspended. The standard does not hinge the outcome on labeling the cause (weather versus a labor dispute) but on whether the interruption is brief or extended and whether substantially all qualifying activity has genuinely stopped. The two-week weather delay is brief and does not require suspension, so capitalization continues through it; the four-month strike, during which no construction-related work of any kind continues, is an extended period of genuine inactivity, so capitalization must be suspended for its duration and would resume once work restarts. The option treating any cessation as an automatic trigger ignores the brief-interruption carve-out. The option requiring abandonment ignores that suspension can be required well short of abandoning the project. The option reversing the two outcomes invents a rule listing specific causes that the standard does not contain; the standard turns on duration and extent of inactivity, not on whether the cause is weather or labor.
Source: FASB ASC 835-20-25-5 (brief interruptions do not require suspension of interest capitalization; capitalization is suspended during extended periods in which activities necessary to get the asset ready for its intended use are suspended)
Over the life of a drilling platform, a company has accreted its recorded asset retirement obligation through periodic accretion expense, so that at the date decommissioning begins, the liability's recorded carrying amount is $610,000. The company then pays a third-party contractor $575,000 cash to perform the actual dismantlement and site restoration work, fully settling the obligation. Under ASC 410-20, how should the company account for the $35,000 difference between the recorded liability and the actual cash paid to settle it?
AAs a retroactive adjustment to all prior periods' accretion expense, restating each year since the obligation's initial recognition as if the $35,000 difference had been known at that time
BAs an adjustment to the carrying amount of the drilling platform itself, since the platform has already been fully depreciated and removed from service by the time of settlement
CAs additional accretion expense recognized in the current period, since any difference at settlement is, by definition, unrecognized accretion that should have been recorded earlier
DAs a $35,000 gain recognized in income in the period of settlement, reflecting that the actual cost to settle the obligation was less than its recorded carrying amount, with no retroactive restatement of prior periods and no adjustment to any asset
Correct answer: .
When an asset retirement obligation is settled, ASC 410-20 requires recognizing a gain or loss for any difference between the amount paid to settle the liability and its recorded carrying amount at the settlement date. Here the company paid $575,000 to settle a liability recorded at $610,000, so it recognizes a $35,000 gain in income in the period of settlement; had the cash paid instead exceeded the recorded liability, the difference would be recognized as a loss. The option calling for retroactive restatement of prior accretion is wrong because settlement differences reflect new information resolved only at the settlement date, not an error in prior periods' accretion, which was based on the best available estimates at the time. The option adjusting the platform's carrying amount is wrong because the platform has already been removed from service, leaving no asset basis left to adjust; settlement differences are an income statement item, not a capitalized cost. The option treating the difference as additional current-period accretion is wrong because accretion reflects the passage of time on a discounted liability, a mechanically distinct concept from the gain or loss that arises only once the obligation is actually settled.
Source: FASB ASC 410-20-40-1 (settlement of asset retirement obligations; recognition of a gain or loss for the difference between the settlement amount and the liability's carrying amount)
A broadcast company holds an FCC license carried at $5,000,000. It has always been classified as an indefinite-lived intangible asset, tested annually for impairment and never amortized, because management could identify no foreseeable limit on the period over which the license was expected to contribute cash flows. This year, a change in the regulatory environment leads management to conclude the license now has a determinable remaining useful life of 8 years. Under ASC 350-30, what must the company do in the period of this reassessment?
ABegin amortizing the $5,000,000 carrying amount prospectively over the 8-year remaining useful life immediately, with no impairment test required, since the reassessment itself is not a triggering event under ASC 350-30
BFirst test the license for impairment by comparing its carrying amount to its fair value — the same fair-value-based test used for indefinite-lived intangibles, not the undiscounted-cash-flow recoverability test used for finite-lived long-lived assets — and only then begin amortizing the resulting carrying amount prospectively over the newly estimated 8-year remaining useful life, with no retroactive restatement of prior periods
CRetroactively restate prior years' financial statements as if the license had been amortized over its full useful life since acquisition, recognizing a cumulative-effect adjustment to the opening balance of retained earnings
DContinue treating the license as indefinite-lived and performing only the annual impairment test until the start of the next fiscal year, since a mid-year change in classification is not permitted under ASC 350-30
Correct answer: .
ASC 350-30-35-16 requires an entity to reassess an indefinite-lived intangible asset's useful life each reporting period, and when events or circumstances no longer support an indefinite life, ASC 350-30-35-18 and 35-19 require the asset to be tested for impairment immediately, using the same fair-value-based comparison applied to other indefinite-lived intangibles, before the entity begins amortizing it; only after that impairment test is complete does the resulting carrying amount get amortized prospectively over the newly estimated remaining useful life, with no restatement of prior periods. The option skipping straight to amortization is wrong because the reassessment itself is exactly the kind of event that triggers the required impairment test under the standard. The option calling for retroactive restatement is wrong because changes in an intangible asset's useful life, like changes in a tangible asset's useful life, are accounted for prospectively, never by restating history. The option delaying any change until the next fiscal year is wrong because the reassessment and resulting reclassification take effect in the period the facts and circumstances actually change, not on a fixed annual cycle.
Source: FASB ASC 350-30-35-16 through 35-19 (reassessment of an indefinite-lived intangible asset's useful life; required impairment test before amortization begins)
An asset group classified as held and used fails the recoverability test and is impaired by $80,000, the excess of its $500,000 total carrying amount over its $420,000 fair value. The group contains two assets: Asset A (equipment), carrying amount $200,000, with a fair value of $180,000 that can be determined without undue cost and effort, and Asset B (building), carrying amount $300,000, whose fair value cannot be determined without undue cost and effort. Under ASC 360-10-35-28, how should the $80,000 impairment loss be allocated between Asset A and Asset B?
AEqually, $40,000 to each asset, because ASC 360-10-35-28 allocates impairment losses evenly across all assets in a group regardless of their relative carrying amounts or fair values
BStrictly pro rata by carrying amount with no adjustment: $32,000 to Asset A (40% of $80,000) and $48,000 to Asset B (60% of $80,000), since Asset A's separately determinable fair value is irrelevant to the allocation mechanics
CInitially $32,000 would be allocated to Asset A on a pro rata basis, but that is capped at $20,000 because allocating more would reduce Asset A below its determinable $180,000 fair value; the uncapped $12,000 is then reallocated to Asset B, which also absorbs its own initial $48,000 share, for a total loss of $60,000 on Asset B
DEntirely to Asset B, $80,000, because once an asset in a group has a separately determinable fair value, it is excluded from the impairment allocation altogether and bears none of the group's loss
Correct answer: .
ASC 360-10-35-28 allocates an asset group's impairment loss pro rata among its assets based on their relative carrying amounts, except that the loss allocated to any individual asset cannot reduce that asset's carrying amount below its own fair value whenever that fair value is determinable without undue cost and effort. Asset A represents 40% of the group's $500,000 total carrying amount, so an initial pro rata allocation would assign it $32,000 of the $80,000 loss, but Asset A's $200,000 carrying amount can only absorb a $20,000 loss before hitting its own $180,000 fair value floor. The $12,000 that cannot be allocated to Asset A is reallocated to Asset B, the only other asset in the group, which also bears its own initial 60% share of $48,000, for a total of $60,000. This leaves Asset A at exactly its $180,000 fair value and Asset B at $240,000, summing to the group's $420,000 fair value. The option allocating the loss equally ignores the relative-carrying-amount basis the standard requires. The option applying a straight pro rata split with no adjustment ignores the fair-value floor entirely. The option excluding Asset A altogether overstates the floor's effect, since Asset A still absorbs a loss up to its fair value rather than none at all.
Source: FASB ASC 360-10-35-28 (allocating an impairment loss to the long-lived assets of a group on a pro rata basis, subject to the fair-value floor for any asset with a separately determinable fair value)